please not the Indian who holds green card stuff...just serious answer to be appreciated with 10 points. thanks
2006-12-28 23:09:57 · 9 answers · asked by Mr. Kite 2 in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
the people from india. columbus thought he was in india when he got to america and so he called the natives ''indians'' and the term is still used today.
2006-12-28 23:16:52 · answer #1 · answered by gabriella 3 · 2⤊ 0⤋
The term Indian is for people from India no one has rights to it its just proper English
Like people that live in America are call AMERICAN. The only reason the Native Americans are called Indians is because for the longest time people thought America was India. When Christopher Columbus came over he was looking for India not a new world.
The problem was it sort of stuck for the last few hundred years.
2006-12-28 23:21:38 · answer #2 · answered by FIRE § 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
An East Indian is the first, the Indian Ocean etc., the American Native was called an Indian by the whiteman when he crossed the Atlantic. Native American's had their own names for their tribes and their name for their homeland was not America either. However Native Americans have been around for thousands of years just like the East Indian, and by the way they East Indian was a native as well, watch Sabu the Elephant boy. ha ha
Happy New Year
2006-12-28 23:26:14 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Calling native Americans 'Indians' is only an abbreviation, their real name is 'Cherokee Indians', so people from the country India would hold the right to the name 'Indian' not the native Americans.
2006-12-28 23:40:36 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
the people of India, native Americans are just called Indians because Christopher Columbus thought he had actually reached India,and so named the people Indians.
2006-12-29 00:31:56 · answer #5 · answered by GRAND SLAM 09 BABYYY 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
of course the people from india. they are the true indians. native americans were pinned "indians" due to columbus's mistake.
2006-12-29 03:31:17 · answer #6 · answered by mtja57 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Blame it on Christopher Columbus, the first eu who heavily got here upon 'u . s . of america'. He idea he had are available the course of 'The Indies' (i.e. portion of Asia) in his search for for the decrease back thanks to China and The Indies. one way or the different the call stuck, as also the Caribbean islands are referred to as The West Indies.
2016-10-16 22:15:51 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
"Historical rights" is not a legal term. Hence, no one has such rights.
Besides, wouldn't the European colonizers who came up with the name have the trademark, so to speak?
2006-12-28 23:17:41 · answer #8 · answered by angrysandwichguy2000 3 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Is that an issue?
Is someone going to make money on this gig?
I guess it jus shows how lost Columbus was....
2006-12-28 23:12:44 · answer #9 · answered by ? 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋