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I have heard this in intelligent conversations with both a genetic researcher and a doctor - people who would know what they're talking about on a subject like this. They were both fairly adamant that it has been found that 1 in 10 people are predisposed to be "gay" or homosexual.

The numbers seem to make sense, but would any intelligent folks care to elaborate on this?

Are there actually reliable statistical results out there that prove that 1 in 10 of us is homosexual?

PLEASE KEEP THIS AS SCIENTIFIC AND RESPECTFUL AS POSSIBLE.

2006-12-28 14:52:08 · 18 answers · asked by Jape Coyote 2 in Science & Mathematics Biology

So far.. the overall response is pretty ugly. Lots of slurs and false pretense. FYI: I am a straight man and proud father who simply had an intelligent conversation one night that left me with a burning question. If you're not man, woman, HUMAN enough to answer it intelligently.. please go display your ignorance and immaturity someplace else where you won't be flagged immediately.

2006-12-28 15:01:52 · update #1

18 answers

The 10% figure came from the early Kinsey studies on male sexual behavior. It is no longer considered accurate, since Kinsey studied sexual activity and not sexual attraction. There is no reliable figure, but the more generally accepted number is between 2% and 5%. There is a great deal of scientific evidence for a genetic factor, including twin studies. But as in other inherited characteristics, the genetic factor is only one part; environmental factors are also important.

2006-12-28 15:02:51 · answer #1 · answered by gp4rts 7 · 3 0

Laughter and gp4rts got it nailed. As they have told you, it is a number much less than 10%. This sometimes happens in science and lay thinking. Numbers that are no longer considered correct hang on for some reason. See how many time the question comes up on percentage of brain used ( 10 % ). That is an incorrect number that does not go away either. Homosexuality has strong genetic indications, though, empirically, some still argue about that.

PS Include sarcasm in the " correct " column.

2006-12-28 16:50:04 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

My uncle is gay. i found that out by reading one of his gay magazines. One of the articles said that there is a gene that helps to determine wether or not a person is gay. Based on the study, Straight men will react in a positive way when smelling chemicals contained in a womans sweat. These chemicals are a type of pheromones. Gay men react similarly to equivalant chemicals in the sweat of other gay men. They believe such a reaction requires a genetic positioning of neurons to occur. This did not find a gene or prove anything but just discussed evidence that pointed towards genetic origin. This was also a gay magazine so it may have had a bias.

2006-12-28 15:28:06 · answer #3 · answered by serpent 2 · 0 0

I wished I could remember whom did this, but about 10-12 years ago the brains of gay men, straight men and straight women were analyzed. The conclusive evidence showed that a gay man's brain more closely resembles a straight woman's in size, weight, and coil pattern. So according to this there is physiological proof that being homosexual, at least for a man, is just they way they are "made". It isn't merely a choice, the only choice is to act on the compulsions or no.

No matter how people feel about the issue, it is increasingly hard to argue that genes play no role in homosexuality. The evidence began to pile up in 1991, when studies showed that identical twins were more likely to have the same sexual orientation than other pairs of siblings. That same year, a California scientist reported slight brain differences between gay and straight men, although the conclusion is disputed. And in 1993, an NIH researcher found a stretch of DNA on the X chromosome that seemed to harbor one or more genes affecting sexual orientation.

I also found this for you when trying to find out who did that experiment.

genetics now show that being gay is natural and normal for at least part of the human family.

Before I go farther, let me say that from a scientific point of view, any genetic variation that occurs in 1% or more of the members of a certain population is considered to be "normal." No matter whose survey and numbers you use, the incidence of gays and lesbians is clearly greater than 1%. Amongst certain families, the incidence of family members who are gay is very high. In over 60% of identical twins, if one is gay, the partner twin will also be gay. Among non-identical twins, about 22% are gay, which is higher than pairs of non-twin brothers at 11%. These results suggest that genetics are strongly involved in the establishment of homosexual identities. In the general population, the incidence is probably less than 10%, but the exact figure is not known. It is important to emphasize that any survey examining sexual orientation will most certainly be an underestimate of the actual percentages, primarily because many individuals who are not "out" will likely deny being gay, even though they are homosexual.

A recent genetic study reported in the journal Science in 1993 (Science 261:321-327 [1993]) is probably the most definitive study so far which clearly links homosexuality with genetics. This particular study examines only male homosexuality, but female homosexuality has similar genetic associations. First, these researchers studied gay brothers and showed that the incidence of gay males were often concentrated in certain families. In addition, the presence of gay males in a family tree usually followed maternal (mother and sister) pedigrees. That is, the genetic trait for male homosexuality appeared to be inherited by a son from his mother. This genetic trait, however, could be carried by other females in the family so that these women could also produce gay sons. It appears, however, that women carrying this gay genetic trait are heterosexual. Moreover, a gay child in these families would be more likely to have gay cousins if these cousins were the sons of his mother's sisters (his maternal aunts) rather than his mother's brothers (his maternal uncles). In fact, virtually none of his mother's brothers ever had gay sons. Likewise, few gay males would likely exist on his father's side of the family. Since these gay genes seem to be carried by females, it is likely that some of his maternal uncles (his mother's brothers) would also be gay since these uncles would have inherited the same gay genetic trait from their mother (your mother's mother or your maternal grandmother).

If you want to read the rest here is the link: http://home.pacbell.net/doninla/homogene.htm

2006-12-28 15:07:26 · answer #4 · answered by sarcasm_gurl 2 · 3 1

"Genetically predisposed" is very different than "is". 1 in 10 people may be predisposed to being gay, but only 1 in 10 of those may be gay.

2006-12-28 15:08:34 · answer #5 · answered by dtbrantner 4 · 1 1

Some people feel that it maybe a genetic trait. However I do not believe it has been proven to be genetic. I think it is too complex of a trait to be inherited as a single mendellan loci. One way to prove this is to look at identical twins. If one is gay and it is genetic the other most likely will be gay.

Mark

2006-12-28 14:56:07 · answer #6 · answered by dr_mark_a_horn 3 · 2 4

I am one in 10.

2006-12-28 14:54:03 · answer #7 · answered by Chula 4 · 2 2

i dont think this study is right. thats because i believe environment and personal actions/feelings determine this trait. arent most things that are hereditary physical features? and the things that are mental tend to be serious/dangerous disorders, like schizophrenia. if gayness was hereditary does this mean the person cant choose? also, does it mean they have a serious problem with themselves?

2006-12-28 15:02:19 · answer #8 · answered by haat 5 · 0 1

I think homosexuality has to do with genetics. I myself have questioned my sexuality since I was in kindergarten. I was writing love notes to other girls in my class before I even knew what love was. I stand by my belief because I've experienced it.

2006-12-28 15:02:08 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 3 2

homosexuality has no basis in genetics because it is not advantageous to prepetuating a species. the predisposition can be accounted to a choice at a nearly unconcious level where it seems that a person never really had the choice to be a homosexual, but realisticly, and logically, homosexuality has no purpose in genetics

2006-12-28 14:58:39 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1 3

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