Did Britain gain some profit from the colonies before the American Revolution?

Answer 1

They sold them slaves and tea at a profit.

Answer 2

Actually, "taxation without representation" was nonsense in terms of the causes of the revolution. That phrase may have been one of the more popular justifications at the time, but it was not exactly sincere. The truth is that the last thing the rebels wanted was representation in parliament. I often think that the British might have cut the legs right out from under the rebels had they made such an offer, because it could have robbed the rebellion of whatever legal legitimacy it may have had. It certainly would have shown the revolution up for what it was; naked nationalism. (Not that there's anything wrong with that.)

The problem was never that the British were overtaxing the colonists. The problem was getting the colonists to pay any taxes at all. From a British perspective, the Empire had invested a great deal in the American colonies and those colonies were enjoying the protection and benefits of membership in it. What Britian wanted was for the Americans to pay some semblance of their fair share for those beneifts.

In any event, in answer to your question, yes, the trade itself was profitable to England in a macroeconomic sense, and it was the inequity of that trade relationship that was at the root of many of the colonists' troubles with england. The colonists thought they were being exploited and to some extent they certainly were.

I'm gonna recommend a book to you. Redcoats and Rebels: The American Revolution Through British Eyes, by Christopher Hibbert. It's an interesting read.

Answer 3

yes Britain became very wealthy off the colonies before the war
the main resources were

1. tobacco back then American tobacco was like a Cuban cigar is today
2 cod was very big in Europe at that time
3. timber most of the royal fleet that fought in the revolution was made from American timber

Answer 4

Yes, the American colonies were used as a sort of forced market for British manufactured goods. Goods not from great Britain were heavily taxed. Colonial goods were not allowed to compete on even ground within the British market.

Answer 5

Absolutely! They made a LOT of money off of the colonies in a variety of ways. It's one reason the Revolution occurred ... the colonies were being so heavily taxed (for maximum profit in Britain) that the colonists rose up and overthrew them.

Answer 6

Oh yeah, they really reaped it in then. That is all they wanted this place for was for the profits. They imported everything from here and got the taxes too from all the merchants. The best thing though was still the Boston Tea Party that cost them then. Those pirates raped America for every dime. Like today between the government and the cost of living it is hard for the average person to survive. The only thing is we have no more tea parties and that is a shame, ha ha

Answer 7

properly the Britains began the conflict.The scientific care they gave to the yankee colonists could be summarized interior the favored word "No taxation devoid of representation"incredibly the British taxed the colonists simply by fact of all the charges from the French and Indian conflict.the certainty that they did no longer ask the colonists in the event that they wanted to be taxed is what ticked the colonists off and fueled the Boston tea party consequently foremost to the yankee Revolution.

Answer 8

Some? The whole reason the revolution happened was because of the tax profits. Taxation without representation. Yup. That was a main cause there... :)

Answer 9

Some, but not a great deal. The colonies became somewhat wealthier per capita than the home country, and balked at even paying taxes to cover their own defense. Had they had "taxation with representation" and been faced with budgetary choices, they might easily have tolerated the taxes against which they rebelled.

Answer 10

Yes! The colonist were still under British rule. Do you remember that the British were trying to make the Colonist pay more taxes?