the formula says it has to be like this.
g= ROE * (1- Payout ratio)
but how im i supposed to calculate it if there is not a payout ratio avaibale for apple, do you know why? they dont have dividends yield and debt / equity neither.
2006-12-28 11:10:31 · 2 answers · asked by The economist 1 in Business & Finance ➔ Investing
Not all formulas will fit in all places. Try graphing the profits over the period and using the slope instead of payout ratio.
2007-01-02 04:23:27 · answer #1 · answered by Rabbit 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
bearish capacity downward tension and corresponding cost decreases on the inventory on the same time as bullish capacity upward tension and price will boost on the inventory. the line expects specific issues from a business enterprise. in apples case it has come to assume blowout earnings and inventive products. now it has in basic terms beat estimates and its product pipeline isn't stable.
2016-12-15 10:08:32 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋