This might refer to a specific man, but it doesn't refer to me. This sounds like a textbook case of the "madonna/whore" complex - before intercourse she is a "virgin" and afterwards she is a "whore". This guy needs some serious psychological counseling if this is the case. If he is repulsed by her, then why is he having sex with her? Just to get his rocks off? Couldn't he do that "on his own", if you know what I mean (and I know you do!)?
2006-12-27 23:51:38
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answer #1
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answered by Paul H 6
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This very well may be true of the man who never loved her in the first place because he has just joined his body with her and became one with her. Right after sex his sex drive is temporarily gone and he sees clearly what he has done and the ugliness of his act. He resents the closeness now that his lust his fulfilled. That's not to say anything negative about the woman, but to join in sex with someone who you do not love in a lifelong relationship is indeed an ugly act. This repulsion is magnified if the woman acts like she is in love and now the man either has to escape or give in and act like he feels something he doesn't. If you're a woman, remember this the next time a guy wants sex. If he loves you he'll wait. If he doesn't and you give in, he'll end up despising you.
2006-12-28 00:17:54
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answer #2
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answered by Captain America 5
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I'm a woman and as far as I know a man has never been repulsed by me after sleeping with him. I on the other hand have been disgusted by a man that I have just slept with and have gotten up got dressed and left never to answer or return any of their phone calls. Just curious to know, where did you read that?
2006-12-28 01:25:32
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answer #3
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answered by Broken hearted 3
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I think if he doesn't want to do those things either he was only wanting sex from her and nothing more, or maybe he is being selfish since I've heard that the majority of girls like to be held or talked to after sex. Of course, except for the girls who also only wanted sex and nothing more.
2006-12-28 00:20:15
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answer #4
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answered by KEVIN C 1
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That is not true. Unless, of course he just used her for sex and has a hatred of women.
A mentally healthy, normal guy would not feel that way - he would just roll over and fall asleep happy!
2006-12-27 23:47:37
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answer #5
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answered by Agent99 5
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Maybe he was drunk when he had sex with her. And then sobered up right after. It would also make sense if he hadn't seen her in the light until after.
2006-12-28 00:01:34
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answer #6
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answered by ? 3
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Uh, a GAY man? I could maybe see that happening, but het men? not so much unless they've got a guilt complex going.
2006-12-28 13:33:39
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answer #7
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answered by Atropis 5
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Before you posted this question ,you could choose where it was going to get to :to what section.
Any idea where you ended up now?
No?
The GLBT section.
Better look next time ok?
greetings:Rob.xxx
2006-12-28 02:03:57
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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It psychological problem he should see a doctor
2006-12-28 00:11:50
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answer #9
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answered by auntsid 3
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Why not post this question in the appropriate heterosexual forum?
2006-12-28 00:34:46
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answer #10
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answered by tjnstlouismo 7
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