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i.e. a x (y + z) = a x y + a x z, where a, y and z are vectors? If possible I'd prefer an intuitive argument, such as a geometric representation, but a rigorous proof would also be helpful.

2006-12-27 15:12:09 · 2 answers · asked by Zetaboy 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

2 answers

it will never be proven as it is only a theory.

2006-12-27 15:13:50 · answer #1 · answered by ? 3 · 0 2

It follows directly from the definition of the dot product and the distributive law of scalars:
http://www.math.psu.edu/levi/230.notes/HW1.pdf

A graphical proof of distrubutivity for the cross-product is shown here:
http://web.mit.edu/6.013_book/www/appendices/app1.html

.

2006-12-27 15:24:37 · answer #2 · answered by Jerry P 6 · 0 0

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