2006-12-27 14:24:43 · 5 answers · asked by leapordlover10 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
An infinite amount, because there are an infinite number of questions that could be asked.
2006-12-27 14:28:23 · answer #1 · answered by j 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Infinitely many. Because x - (x- 1101001) is always going to equal 1101001, so as long as you can always have bigger numbers, you can always have another problem with this as the answer. And you can always have bigger numbers.
Unless this is like a binary inside joke or something, in which case I have no idea.
2006-12-27 23:47:57 · answer #2 · answered by Trip 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Generally speaking, in base 10, an infinite number of times, as you could devise an endless series os of problems that have 1101001 as an answer. In base 2 that's probably more limited, but still large.
2006-12-27 22:33:29 · answer #3 · answered by flyfisher_20750 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Is this a binary number?
2006-12-27 22:29:43 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
um ... 105?
2006-12-27 22:29:42 · answer #5 · answered by Joni DaNerd 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋