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2006-12-27 03:59:47 · 16 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Astronomy & Space

16 answers

In Astronomy, when you look at something distant, you are looking at something old, the further you look the more in the past you are.

So yes at your answer.

Per exemple, right now if you look at the Sun, you are looking at the Sun that was 8 minutes ago.

It is related to the speed of light.

2006-12-27 04:19:47 · answer #1 · answered by Marvin 2 · 0 0

What would be the foundation for the question you asked? Is it because there is a light year, where the distance is that of the speed of light times the time it traveled in a year? Not knowing what it is that you seek, the following is what the basis of physical time is.

First, the answer to what you ask, at face value, is "yes". Distance and time are directly equatable. The reason for this is that mass and energy are composed of physical time. This is brought about by electromagnetic energy forming electrons, and these in turn forming all other mass. Even though the energy is bound in form of three-dimensional mass it still moves the same distance in a closed loop as it would have were it released as radiation and free to move about the universe. In this sense all creation is moving at the same speed but where the final point of arrival might be, no one can understand.

The physics trilogy, E = mc2, m = E/c2, and c2 = E/m have as their common basis the "c2" value. This value is the same as that of electromagnetic energy, in relation to movement. It is the only value that is able to remain the same of the three equations. Energy and mass are able to transform into each other - the value of "c2" remains the same. This value is that of physical time, and describes how quickly the present moves into the past, and the actual duration of physical time.

http://timebones.blogspot.com and
http://360.yahoo.com/noddarc may be of interest.

2006-12-27 05:03:46 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

If the speed = 1 unit then yes Distance = Time. Otherwise no.

2006-12-27 04:04:11 · answer #3 · answered by mailler_mike 3 · 0 0

Distance requires time!

2006-12-28 02:57:04 · answer #4 · answered by Billy Butthead 7 · 0 0

You might be referring to special relativity, where in Minkowsian space, time is put on the same footing as space, so that a change in moving frames is expressed by a rotation. Conventionally, the time axis is expressed in units of ct, where c is the speed of light, and t is time, so that ct has the physical dimensions of length.

2006-12-27 04:05:35 · answer #5 · answered by Scythian1950 7 · 0 0

person-friendly velocity is total distance divided via total time. person-friendly velocity=total Distance/total Time this is why you hear human beings say "60 miles consistent with hour." basically look at your graph and see the whole distance traveled, then see total time elapsed. as quickly as you have those 2, plug them into the formula above.

2016-11-23 19:42:30 · answer #6 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

Very very wrong. Distance = Time * Velocity.

Distance is in meters, time is in seconds, a second doesn't equal a meter.

2006-12-27 04:04:13 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Speed = distance divided by time

is that what you're asking?

2006-12-27 04:07:27 · answer #8 · answered by babyruth55225 2 · 0 0

distance= speed/time actually!

2006-12-27 04:07:10 · answer #9 · answered by Mishelle W 2 · 0 0

For myself both are same.

Example:

Distance: From initial to final (one point to another point)
Time: From initial to final (one point to another point)

Both are same at initial point = zero. or any constant.
final point various by speed or acceleration.

2006-12-27 05:00:46 · answer #10 · answered by M.R.Palaniappa 2 · 0 0

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