English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

What does it mean when the probabilities of some events behave "quasi-independent"?
Please give answer in simple expression....thx

2006-12-27 03:55:30 · 2 answers · asked by AldoT 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

2 answers

A blackjack dealer deals you successive hands from a deck. If the deck is shuffled after every hand, then your odds of winning is independent of prior hands. However, if the deck is not shuffled after every hand, then your odds does depend on prior hands dealt. But as a good enough approximation, the odds can be computed as if your odds didn't depend on past hands; this would be an example of "quasi-independent events", even though technically speaking they aren't really independent.

That's why casinos frequently shuffle their decks at blackjack tables today.

2006-12-27 04:36:56 · answer #1 · answered by Scythian1950 7 · 1 0

If events are independant, then their probablity when you calculate it by the multiplication rule is the same as their probablity when you treat them as conditoinal and calculate it that way.
I've never heard of "quasi-independant" but I'd venture a guess...
It either means that their probabilities when calculated these two ways are not the same but are "close enough for gov't work" as they say. (I don't like that one)
Or it means that they are independant or not depending on the operation of another factor in the experiement. (that makes more sense.)

2006-12-27 12:00:40 · answer #2 · answered by Joni DaNerd 6 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers