Hi.
It is an English Language question, I look for help.
I am sometime confused by the article 'the'
How are the following two sentences different, in terms of meaning. Do they have the same meaning?
All cars sold in Europe are of good quality.
Vs
All of the cars sold in Europe are of good quality
2006-12-26 23:48:48 · 17 answers · asked by Iwanttoknow 1 in Education & Reference ➔ Words & Wordplay
They basically mean the same thing, but there CAN be a differentiation if you have been dicussing a general group of cars.
Example: The cars are sold world-wide. While the vehicles sent to the USA are inferior, all of the cars sold in Europe are of good quality.
The statement "All cars sold in Europe are of good quality" is more of a definite statement.
2006-12-27 00:03:42 · answer #1 · answered by cloud43 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
there is a difference in these questions but it is not a lot. The only difference is one would be saying that the cars in europe are of better quality and others and one does not
2006-12-27 00:59:02 · answer #2 · answered by Mrs Bond 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
All Cars Mean The Ones That Are Seen And All Of The Cars Means Every Car
2006-12-26 23:53:23 · answer #3 · answered by Jennie C 1 · 0⤊ 2⤋
Both the same, but.....
the first carries a little more authority, as if you're definitely someone who knows what you're talking about. It's a fine line, though.
That's one of the beauties of English: we've got so many ways of saying the same thing, each with a slightly different shade of meaning.
It's a double-edged sword, though-say something slightly the wrong way and you can get into trouble!
2006-12-27 00:30:42 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
in this instance they are identical, however I would add an 'a' before 'good'.
the first sentence is less formal than the second.if you want to impress, be more precise.
All of the new cars sold within Europe are of a good quality.
2006-12-26 23:58:20 · answer #5 · answered by DAVID C 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
They both have the same meaning, there's only a grammatical difference that has no substantive effect on the meaning.
It is the beauty and the curse of English!
The second one is slightly more formal, and would be appropriate for formal writing (e.g. report or essay).
2006-12-27 00:05:46 · answer #6 · answered by zodiacs_cat 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The first sentence is not so awkward.
The second sentence seems to be the long clumsy way of saying it.
They are both meaning the same and are correct.
2006-12-26 23:56:22 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Yeah they both mean the same thing.. but use different grammar.. The latter one helps if you were struggling with a 10,000 word essay obviously...
2006-12-26 23:56:39 · answer #8 · answered by PliNk_PloNk 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Same meaning.
2006-12-26 23:52:46 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
There's no difference in meaning
2006-12-26 23:54:16 · answer #10 · answered by SteveT 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋