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if there is an equation 1hour^2, the answer would be 1 hour because 1*1=1. But if you do 60min^2, it is 3600min, thus making it 60 hours. WHAT IS THE OFFICIALLY CORRECT ANSWER??

2006-12-26 16:06:11 · 10 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

oh, ic. 1hr*1hr = 3600min

2006-12-27 06:24:56 · update #1

10 answers

Well, although you sometimes square time in order to calculate things (like velocity), there really isn't such a thing as a "square minute".

But if there were, then 3600 square minutes would equal a square hour, because (60 min)² = (1 hr)² so 3600 min² = 1 hr².

In the same way that 10,000 square centimeters is a square meter, but 100 centimeters is a meter: (100 cm)² = (1 m)² so 10,000 cm² = 1 m².

2006-12-26 16:10:45 · answer #1 · answered by Jim Burnell 6 · 0 0

This concept is easier to illustrate with linear units of measure. If we use 1 foot and 12 inches instead of 1 hour and 60 minutes we would have 1 foot ^2 = 1 square foot. We would also have 12 inches^2 which is 144 square inches. Picture a square with 12 across the top and 12.

2006-12-26 16:31:36 · answer #2 · answered by tval_friedly 2 · 0 0

Tho the dimensions of square hours is rather bizarre, what you have shown is that

1 square hour = 3600 square minutes

You're more familiar with length:

1 foot = 12 inches, therefore

1 square foot = 144 square inches

The question isn't WHICH is correct, the question is what units do you want your answer in.

1 dollar = 10 dimes
1 square dollar = 100 square dimes (unusual units for sure, but given the first equality, the second must be equally valid.)

2006-12-26 17:17:36 · answer #3 · answered by answerING 6 · 0 0

You need to remember that you're squaring the units as well. Hence, (1hr)^2=1hr^2 (the units are hr^2, not hr), and (60min)^2=3600min^2 (again, min^2, not min). The two are equivalent. Hope this helps.

2006-12-26 16:11:52 · answer #4 · answered by poseidon33 2 · 0 0

it would be the 60 minutes to 3600 all the 1 in 1 hour is like saying a equals 1 and b equals 2 its just a variable.

2006-12-26 16:12:07 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Note that 1hour = 60 minutes, so
(1 hour)^2 = (60 min)^2 = 3600 min^2. So 3600 is correct. Just do your dimensions carefully: here you are talking about hours^2 and mins^2, not just hours or minutes.

2006-12-26 16:09:16 · answer #6 · answered by Telodrift 2 · 0 0

When you have both a value and unit in a single term, you must square both, not just one. Therefore, (1 hour)^2 becomes 1-squared hour-squared (or one hour-squared). (60 min.)^2 becomes 60-squared minutes-squared (or 3600 minutes-squared).

In order to convert minutes-squared to hours-squared, you must also square the conversion value. So, there are 3600 (60-squared) minutes-squared in one hour-squared. You cannot convert minutes-squared directly to hours, because you're dropping an exponent.

2006-12-26 16:14:24 · answer #7 · answered by temporos 3 · 0 0

Easy use logs, Log base 4k+4K, 4 then that equals log base 4k+4k to the x over 2 is equal to two. You could use base change to simplify it further but I dunno how simplified you want it. Dude you asked to simplify it and I used my knowledge in calculus. This is the calculus method of simplifying exponents. Logs are exponents or at least have similar traits.

2016-05-23 09:39:56 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

1hour=60min then (1hour)^2=(60min)^2 it means 1hour^2=3600min^2 then you see there is actually no confusion

2006-12-26 16:13:19 · answer #9 · answered by amin s 2 · 0 0

You can't square time.

Acceleration is measured as distance per second per second, and is sometimes refered to as distance per seconde squared, but this is not squaring time.

2006-12-26 16:14:30 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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