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Paul
2006-12-26 15:53:16 · 6 answers · asked by dunric 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Politics
Corruption probably began concurrent with spoken language. or maybe before.
2006-12-26 15:58:54 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 0⤋
I don't think so.
It certainly seems that way - but there are a lot more people in the world now, the weapons have changed and the media brings all of the news from around the world right into our living rooms on a daily basis.
In previous centuries, events half way around the world had little or no impact on the other half of the world - that's certainly not true today.
Given the extent at which the world's population has increased and the number of countries involved, it might be that corruption as a percentage of population has actually decreased.
2006-12-27 00:09:52 · answer #2 · answered by LeAnne 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I would say more. Many members of the U.N. are very corrupt and would like the power to bring down the U.S. or have taxation powers over us.
2006-12-26 23:58:10 · answer #3 · answered by Fly Boy 4 · 2⤊ 1⤋
About the same.
2006-12-27 00:05:04 · answer #4 · answered by usarocketman 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I'd say its always been corrupt.I don't think you could measure it
2006-12-26 23:59:23 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
More....MUCH more!!!
2006-12-27 00:27:46 · answer #6 · answered by TexasRose 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋