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Did North America belong to Native Americans and Mexicans before people from europe and spain came?

2006-12-26 12:21:39 · 3 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities History

3 answers

I have always heard that the original inhabitants of the North American continent migrated across the Bering Strait land bridge during the Ice Age about 15,000 years ago. To check my facts, I googled "aboriginal Americans". Below is info from one website that showed up.

"Based on anthropological and genetic evidence, scientists generally agree that most Native Americans descend from people who migrated from Siberia across the Bering Strait, between 17,000 ~ 11,000 years ago.
Until recently there was a consensus among anthropologists that the alleged migrants crossed the strait 12,000 years ago via the Bering Land Bridge ... There are a number of difficulties in this theory ... Thus other possibilities, not necessarily exclusive, have been suggested:
>The migrants may have crossed the land bridge several millennia earlier ...
>They may have been seafaring people ...
>The crossing of the Bering Land Bridge may have occurred during the previous ice age, around 37,000 years ago. This is also supported by the archaeology dating of some sites in South America prior to the previously assumed date of 12 ~ 14,000 years ago.

Some mainstream anthropologists and archaeologists consider the genetic and cultural evidence for a primarily Siberian origin overwhelming. According to their theories, at least three separate migrations from Siberia to the Americas are highly likely to have occurred:
>The first wave ... The Clovis culture ... & the Folsom culture ... This wave eventually spread over the entire hemisphere, as far south as Tierra del Fuego.
>The second migration brought the ancestors of the Na-Dene peoples... ancestral to the Dene, Apaches and Navajos.
>The third wave brought the ancestors of the Eskimos and the Aleuts. They may have come by sea over the Bering Strait, after the land bridge had disappeared.

In recent years, molecular genetics studies have suggested as many as four distinct migrations from Asia. These studies also provide surprising evidence of smaller-scale, contemporaneous migrations from Europe, possibly by peoples who had adopted a lifestyle resembling that of Inuits and Yupiks during the last ice age."

By the time Vikings arrived from Greenland about 1000 CE and Spaniards beginning in 1492, the entire continent of North America had been inhabited for several thousand years. Most Native American groups of which I am aware did not have any idea of private property, but considered themselves stewards of the Great Spirit's land. They would not have claimed they owned the land or that the land belonged to them. Personally I think that by any modern legal standard (though not necessarily 15th century European legal codes), the land belonged to the groups who lived on it.

2006-12-26 17:53:05 · answer #1 · answered by peter_lobell 5 · 0 0

There was no Mexico?
And the Natives were everywhere. The Spaniard infiltrated into South America and worked their way up. But not before Magellan had a crack at it as well. And he was a Portuguese Sea Captain. So the Portuguese were here as well. The Native Americans date back in North America 1000's of years. The Northern most parts are also Nordic region peoples, the Scandanavians. Leif Erikkson. And Alaskan regions plus anything close to the mainland of the continent were the so-called Eskimo tribe that migrated after the iceage. that is Asian, and Native. Then came all the so-called Empires from the Imperialistic world's from everywhere in Europe. They came and found people here and conquered, and dominated and forced their way of life upon the people that lived here on this continent of North America. The South American and the lower part of North America were Natives of the Incas, Mayans, Aztecs, etc., they were not Spanish or Mexicans. The Pueblo, Navaho, Hopi, Zuni, Apache, etc. were very intelligent and had their own languages and certainly had written languages as well unbeknownst to many. If it wasnt for the Pueblo written Hyrogliphics in letters for code we would have not won WWII because they were the only languages the enemies could not decipher. And they were not latin languages at all or Deutch either, therefore no English at all.

2006-12-27 00:49:27 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Well, Mexicans are the descendants of native and European (Spain mainly). who was here before the natives? Who knows. But they were her before a lot of Europeans. But I don't believe that belong is a word to use. They were here, it was theirs to use. Laws and rules came later, with white man.
There is some info here:
www.cabrillo.edu/~crsmith/anth7_hist1.html

2006-12-27 00:27:09 · answer #3 · answered by Cister 7 · 0 1

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