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of course we could see such orders and regularities everywhere around.how do you explain it pls?!

2006-12-26 10:48:00 · 10 answers · asked by jack 1 in Arts & Humanities Philosophy

10 answers

Science merely quantifies the correlation we see. F = gmm'/d² is Newton's version. Einstein's is a little better but requires tensor calculus. Does that count as explanation? If not, what would? Beware that the question you ask shapes the answer you're willing to hear.

2006-12-26 10:56:14 · answer #1 · answered by Philo 7 · 0 0

Not exactly. Most high universities have firm liberal and progressive biases, which is why higher education leads to progressive, neoliberal political thinking as well as atheism. It's pushed much harder. In fact, back at UM, the conservative political groups practically had to hide or hold their meetings outside of the public; they're oppressed that heavily. Atheism and proggressivism go hand in hand, so more often than not, the "most educated" young people, who got their educations at universities instead of in business or on the streets, are atheist neoliberal. It's social influence, indoctrination, peer pressure, whatever you want. Plus, it's simply a lot more fun not to worry about God when the past times are sex and alcohol, which I've seen harm more conservative minded students than any form of scientific enlightenment. Most people are just like Katy Perry. It goes hand in hand that many of the wealthiest people never attended or completed higher education. Less privilege, more work, more faith, less comfort, more integrity etc. The classic example I've heard around YA for educated and religious is Isaac Newton, who was about as real a scientist and a high thinker as you could ask for and a religious man. Back in those days, the colleges and universities were all about religion. Yale and Harvard used to be private "Christian" universities. Of course, they're different now, and so the people who come out of them will be different now. Science and religion are not separate things, and neither one defeats the other in any way.

2016-03-29 07:32:03 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

I see them as being the natural result of the previous and current occurrences and interactions within the solar system and universe. I don't see that the philosophical standpoint has to be any different to any other.

2006-12-26 11:07:30 · answer #3 · answered by zodiacs_cat 2 · 0 0

I don't concern myself with correlation/s. i find a quiet place, sit in mother natures carpet (grass) and gaze at the wonder of all those thing...the sun, moon, stars and the earth. lifes to short to be concerned with correlations.

2006-12-26 11:08:25 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

We're aware of astronomical objects as something "outside" of our world. They enable us to visualize the magnitude of space and the universe. They more or less put us in our place in the scale of things, and make us feel a sense of awe and wonder.

2006-12-26 12:19:32 · answer #5 · answered by The Gadfly 5 · 1 0

There like giant rocks of the galexy, just floating around.

2006-12-26 11:06:03 · answer #6 · answered by Mr. Niceguy 3 · 0 0

I would never use a soft science in reference to a hard science subject

2006-12-26 10:50:21 · answer #7 · answered by Grundoon 7 · 0 0

if you dont want to see evrything then you could live here without them

does that make sence ?
do you understand that?

because i can explain it to where you would understand

2006-12-26 11:12:20 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Coooooo wish I was clever. Then I'd be able to answer this.

2006-12-26 17:15:06 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Motion-Time-Poetry...

Poetry in motion!

2006-12-26 20:40:08 · answer #10 · answered by TLC 2 · 0 0

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