I have been working at a garage for 4 months for 3 days a week (24 hours a week) and it is classed as full time because its over 16 hours a week but when i asked for some time off the other day my boss said im not entitled to boliday pay because of my hours! is this right?
2006-12-26 09:18:51 · 11 answers · asked by chilledoutpaul 2 in Business & Finance ➔ Careers & Employment
normally you would earn 1 and a half days per month you work,your hours are over 16 so this is classed as full-time so you are entitled to 6 days paid
2006-12-26 09:34:26 · answer #1 · answered by raymond s 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Holiday Pay policies are not typically regulated by the government, state or federal. These are usually set by your employer. Most often 24 hours is considered part time, not full time. This should be identified for certain on your pay stub.
And, I'm sorry to say, but it has happened to me. I was being scheduled 40 hours a week but the company was still keeping me in a "Part Time" position so when holiday pay hours rolled around I only got half, regardless of the hours I was working.
If I were you then I highly suggest you get something put in writing for you on your status!
2006-12-26 09:23:10 · answer #2 · answered by SGTCharity 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Where I work we get 32 days holiday a year when someone new starts they acquire a few days holidays for every month they have worked for the firm. This is done by dividing 32 by 12 so you are entitled to 2.66 days for every month you work so for 4 months you would be entitled to 10.6 days holiday.This is for full time staff but there should still be a similar process worked out pro rota for part time staff, hope this helps you.
2006-12-26 09:52:25 · answer #3 · answered by john m 1 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No this isn't correct. Everyone is entitled to holiday pay including part time workers. It is calculated based on your contracted hours. Check your contract. And if you don't have one tell your boss he's breaking the law. Legally every employee is entitled to a written contract within 1 month of employment.
2006-12-26 14:59:35 · answer #4 · answered by Linsay M 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
i does no longer voluntarily pay trip pay. He has, as has been pronounced, broken the words of his contract through no longer turning up for paintings without giving be conscious. enable him request the trip pay - i'd be shocked if he pursues it. If he does - advise that he take the project to courtroom and that if he does you will project a counter declare for the shortcoming of business enterprise and extra cost of short-term conceal in the back of him (it particularly is a sprint bit a bluff, yet I wager it will paintings). it is not an sufficient defence on his area to declare that he left early through taking a week's annual go away. If he did no longer supply you improve be attentive to his purpose to realize this he's in breach of his contract. the respond below from Michael H is factually incorrect. If the guy have been brushed off the situation would be diverse and you'd be required to pay all astonishing debts as much as that factor. even regardless of the indisputable fact that, it particularly is not any longer the case. This worker has left owing you a minimum of one weeks' labour and in breaking his contract is vulnerable to be sued through you in a courtroom of regulation. My advice stands - do no longer pay it, await him to make a declare.
2016-12-15 08:34:12 · answer #5 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no u get 1 wk 4 ever 3 months u work ther
2006-12-26 09:39:11 · answer #6 · answered by dean 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No! You are entitled to holiday pay on a pro-rata basis.
2006-12-26 09:22:21 · answer #7 · answered by Natalie B 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
In a word no contact your nearest citizens advice your boss is on a loser.
2006-12-26 09:42:44 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No this is not right your holidays would be pro-rata'd,
2006-12-26 12:09:19 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No
2006-12-26 09:21:20 · answer #10 · answered by Coalie 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋