As in the Emmerdale storyline, if a couple are married having been "living together" for a few months - certainly less than 12 months and barely 6 months - and the husband dies (by whatever means - foul or natural) DURING THE RECEPTION having made a contract for his future wife to have control of his businesses and assets on his death, is that "marriage" considered LEGAL if the marriage has not been consummated?
2006-12-26 05:39:48 · 5 answers · asked by Hello 3 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
Non-consummation of a marriage is typically used as grounds for annulment. It cannot be used to question the validity of the marriage for any other reason -- particularly by a third party attempting to challenge the valididy of a will.
If he named his future wife in his will at some time prior to the marriage she would have inherited even if the marriage never took place unless the bequest was conditional on the marriage actually taking place.
As soon as the preacher pronounced them married (or they signed the register book at a civil ceremony) the marriage would be valid. And in many cases, a civil ceremony at the register office precedes the religious ceremony so they're legally married already in the eyes of the state, and would be presumed to have consumated the marriage already.
2006-12-26 06:46:11 · answer #1 · answered by Bostonian In MO 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes. You, your spouse, your witness, and your preacher sign the marriage license, it's for real.
It's all about the paperwork.
2006-12-26 13:49:02 · answer #2 · answered by ? 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes, its legal if all the papers have been signed.
2006-12-26 14:15:02 · answer #3 · answered by Laura 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I fail to see what sex has to do with the validity of a legal document?
2006-12-26 13:48:55 · answer #4 · answered by Max S 2 · 1⤊ 1⤋
beccah is right. technically your married when you sign the paper, not the day of the ceremony.
2006-12-26 14:05:05 · answer #5 · answered by TJ815 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋