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(Note: When you integrate sin x you get -cos x which is even)

2006-12-26 04:14:06 · 3 answers · asked by suba k 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

3 answers

One way is Taylor's series.

If it is an analytic function (Taylor series convereges to f(x)) then an odd function has only odd degree terms and so when you integerate term by term you get even degree terms which is then an even function.

Otherwise, let f(t) be an odd function, and let F(x)=int(f(t),t=0 to x,dt) be an antiderivative. Then F(-x) = int(f(t), t=0..-x, dt) = int(f(-t), t=-0..-(-x), d(-t)) = int(-f(t), t=0..x, -dt) = int(f(t), t=0..x, dt) = F(x). So basically you get a negative sign from the dt part and a negative sign from the odd function part and those cancel.

2006-12-26 04:20:34 · answer #1 · answered by a_math_guy 5 · 1 0

every time it isn`t correct, but some it is correct
eg:sinx cosx eg: ex ex
cosx -sinx
tanx secx
secx secx tanx

2006-12-26 12:21:10 · answer #2 · answered by Gayan K 1 · 0 0

Yes, it is true.

By definition,
f'(x) = lim[f(y)-f(x)]/[y-x]

If f(x) is odd, then
f'(-x) = lim[f(-y)-f(-x)]/[-y+x] = lim[f(y)-f(x)]/[y-x] = f'(x)

Can you finish it now?

2006-12-26 12:26:53 · answer #3 · answered by sahsjing 7 · 0 0

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