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First, second, and third estates and what were the issues between them.
please help

2006-12-26 03:26:27 · 2 answers · asked by me 1 in Arts & Humanities History

2 answers

First and Second estates were made up of the aristocracy and clergy of pre revolution France. The Third estate represented the common man. The issues between them: taxes, power, rights,etc.

2006-12-26 03:36:21 · answer #1 · answered by scotteh8 2 · 0 0

I googled "estates general" and offer the following from Wiki:

"The Estates General in France was both similar to and different from the legislative Parliament of England, roughly co-eval in its founding. Both institutions were originally summoned and dismissed at the king's pleasure, and both originally served as forums in which the king would announce and explain policy. "
"In one sense, the composition and powers of the States-General always remained the same. They always included representatives of the First Estate (clergy), Second Estate (lay nobility) and Third Estate (commoners: all others), and monarchs always summoned them either to grant subsidies or to advise the Crown, to give aid and counsel. Their composition, however, as well as their effective powers, varied greatly at different times."
"It was only the representation of the Third Estate which was furnished by election. It was during the last thirty years of the 16th century that the States-General became an entirely elective body and really representative of the whole nation as divided into three parts. "
"The effective powers of the States-General likewise varied over time. In the 14th century they were considerable. The king could not, in theory, levy general taxation. In order to obtain general taxes, the king had to obtain the consent of the lay and ecclesiastical lords and of the towns; this amounted to obtaining the authorisation of the States-General, which only granted these subsidies temporarily for a fairly short period. The result was that they were summoned fairly frequently and that their power over the Crown might become considerable."
"The States-General had legally no share in the legislative power, which belonged to the king alone. In practice; however, the States-General contributed largely to legislation."

2006-12-26 19:57:51 · answer #2 · answered by peter_lobell 5 · 0 0

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