My in-laws (soon to be 70 y/o each) want to add 1 of thier 7 children to thier house deed in order for it to stay in the family & not be sold away at thier death. Is it as simple as going downtown & adding them on? Or should they put it in a will what they want (if so, will the property transfer that way)? Are there any tax implications to doing it either way? Is one way better than the other? Why/why not? Is there a different & better way than those options?
Info:
1 mortgage for $100k left (with only the inlaws on it).
in Washington, DC.
been in house for 30 yrs.
will most likely keep house for either principle resident or rental.
the child currently rents, will they have to buy from estate?
2006-12-26
01:27:26
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3 answers
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asked by
ricks
5
in
Business & Finance
➔ Renting & Real Estate
La Roche: Great insite, thanks. The other 6 are fine with it. Believe it or not, we are not a squabling family like many others. We understand the reason & purpose & dont oppose any actions because all are informed beforehand & respect the decision (but your point is completely understood!). We know that some would sell it right away for the $ & then blow it! Others are not responsible enough to take care of it.
She is married (20yrs) & he is trustworthy. No legal issues that we know, but probably not.
As far as rental, if it comes to that point we would all come to an agreement & would abide (but I would get all that in a contract if needed)
2006-12-26
02:26:10 ·
update #1