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8 answers

Sounds like homework to me.
I am guessing that the question is supposed to be simplified to only worry about kinetic energy.

E=1/2 m * v * v
or more compactly
E=1/2 mv^2

I am not going to do all the work for you but the key is that m will cancel out leaving you with a ratio between 40^2-0^2 and 80^2-40^2. Note that this is NOT the same as the ratio between (40-0)^2 and (80-40)^2

Just been reading some of the other answers, don't trust anything you read here without giving it some careful thought and checking with a textbook.

2006-12-27 09:17:57 · answer #1 · answered by m.paley 3 · 0 0

Ignoring friction wind resistance etc. Kinetic energy = 1/2 mv^2
so getting to 40-80 will require 3 times the energy as getting to 0-40.

2006-12-26 00:40:46 · answer #2 · answered by deflagrated 4 · 4 0

Do the calcs using KE = 1/2 mv^2.

Use correct units, i.e. v in ft/s. 40 mph = 58.7 ft/s, 80 mph = 117.3 ft/s.

Examine the differences.

0 mph = 0 energy
40 mph = 1722 m
80 mph = 6880 m

Thus it take 4 times as much energy to acheive the final additional 40 mph as the initial.

This neglects parasitic losses like wind and mechanical friction.

2006-12-27 09:27:43 · answer #3 · answered by daedgewood 4 · 0 0

Energy required if at sea level, with normal atmospheric pressure is squared. If 40 hp to maintain 40mph, 160hp required to double speed to 80mph.

2006-12-26 02:03:35 · answer #4 · answered by tmd5855 1 · 0 1

First I need to know the car's mass, and what the amount of time is.

2006-12-29 18:01:19 · answer #5 · answered by _anonymous_ 4 · 0 0

It's about 16 times as much. Drag is the main reason and it increases as the cube of the speed which, when integrated gives you a fourth power.

2006-12-26 00:39:03 · answer #6 · answered by Barks-at-Parrots 4 · 4 1

Three dead muslims, go for 150mph

2006-12-26 00:39:20 · answer #7 · answered by ROMFT 3 · 0 2

ask engineers

2006-12-26 00:38:16 · answer #8 · answered by montathra 4 · 0 2

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