Sounds like homework to me.
I am guessing that the question is supposed to be simplified to only worry about kinetic energy.
E=1/2 m * v * v
or more compactly
E=1/2 mv^2
I am not going to do all the work for you but the key is that m will cancel out leaving you with a ratio between 40^2-0^2 and 80^2-40^2. Note that this is NOT the same as the ratio between (40-0)^2 and (80-40)^2
Just been reading some of the other answers, don't trust anything you read here without giving it some careful thought and checking with a textbook.
2006-12-27 09:17:57
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answer #1
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answered by m.paley 3
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Ignoring friction wind resistance etc. Kinetic energy = 1/2 mv^2
so getting to 40-80 will require 3 times the energy as getting to 0-40.
2006-12-26 00:40:46
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answer #2
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answered by deflagrated 4
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Do the calcs using KE = 1/2 mv^2.
Use correct units, i.e. v in ft/s. 40 mph = 58.7 ft/s, 80 mph = 117.3 ft/s.
Examine the differences.
0 mph = 0 energy
40 mph = 1722 m
80 mph = 6880 m
Thus it take 4 times as much energy to acheive the final additional 40 mph as the initial.
This neglects parasitic losses like wind and mechanical friction.
2006-12-27 09:27:43
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answer #3
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answered by daedgewood 4
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Energy required if at sea level, with normal atmospheric pressure is squared. If 40 hp to maintain 40mph, 160hp required to double speed to 80mph.
2006-12-26 02:03:35
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answer #4
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answered by tmd5855 1
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First I need to know the car's mass, and what the amount of time is.
2006-12-29 18:01:19
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answer #5
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answered by _anonymous_ 4
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It's about 16 times as much. Drag is the main reason and it increases as the cube of the speed which, when integrated gives you a fourth power.
2006-12-26 00:39:03
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answer #6
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answered by Barks-at-Parrots 4
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Three dead muslims, go for 150mph
2006-12-26 00:39:20
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answer #7
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answered by ROMFT 3
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ask engineers
2006-12-26 00:38:16
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answer #8
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answered by montathra 4
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