If so what hapens when it does?
2006-12-25 08:23:46 · 5 answers · asked by yo yo ma 2 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Physics
Yes. In the equation F = mu*N - the force N in NORMAL to the direction, and the force produced by friction is orthogonal to that and CANNOT act against each other. So it would just mean that that the friction force is greater than the normal force and that does not lead to any contradictions.
As an example, rusty copper against rusty copper has a coefficient of friction of 1.21.
2006-12-25 12:48:58 · answer #1 · answered by Andy 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The coefficient of friction is a dimensionless scalar (does not depend on direction) value which describes the ratio of the force of friction between two bodies and the force pressing them together. Coefficients of friction need not be less than 1. Under good conditions, a tire on concrete may have a coefficient of friction of 1.7. So, yes is the answer you seek. Theoretically, welded surfaces have infinite coefficients of friction. Obviously the lower the number, the better with respect to lack of friction - bearing surfaces would be a good example of this. Brakes on your car depend on friction to stop, so you'd need a high(er) coefficient of friction.
2006-12-25 08:35:33 · answer #2 · answered by rnrayunretired 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes it can, and you can easily prove it experimentally. Cut a rectangular slab of rubber from an old tyre, place a weight on it and drag it horizontally over a dry concrete surface with a spring balance like the kind used to weigh fish. The horizontal force you need to apply will be more than the total weight pushing it down.
2006-12-25 15:17:34 · answer #3 · answered by zee_prime 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes, unlike the first guy i know what im talking about. If a coefficient of friction reaches one, it means that the object will stop. No object actually has a mew of 1 but it is theoretically possible.
2006-12-25 08:51:52 · answer #4 · answered by jdog33 4 · 0⤊ 2⤋
No.
F(sub f) = mu * N
when the frictional force is alway opposite to the applie force.
If mu were greater than one, then the frictional force would be greater than the applied force! LOL, that would be funny. You push on an object with 10 Newtons of force and it pushes back at you with GREATER than 10 Newtons. Wow!
2006-12-25 09:34:44 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 3⤋
Yes, certainly.
See:
http://www.roymech.co.uk/Useful_Tables/Tribology/co_of_frict.htm
Andy is correct.
2006-12-25 14:07:12 · answer #6 · answered by Jerry P 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋