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2006-12-25 07:35:39 · 4 answers · asked by mitch b 1 in Politics & Government Law & Ethics

4 answers

Texas calls it an "informal marriage," rather than a common-law marriage. Under § 1.91 of the Texas Family Code, an informal marriage can be established either by declaration (registering at the county courthouse without having a ceremony), or by meeting a 3-prong test showing evidence of (1) an agreement to be married; (2) cohabitation in Texas; and (3) representation to others that the parties are married. The 1995 update adds an evidentiary presumption that there was no marriage if no suit for proof of marriage is filed within two years of the date the parties separated and ceased living together.

2006-12-25 09:53:32 · answer #1 · answered by Smurfetta 7 · 1 0

First no not every state allows or reconises a commom law marraige.

And in most cases there had to be a written agreement to enter into this relationshiop signed, not merely living together, and the relationship had to be done in a manner to appear as if you are married, ( not just living together)

http://tlo2.tlc.state.tx.us/statutes/fa.toc.htm

2006-12-25 07:59:11 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 2

Yes, I think common law marriages are recognized everywhere in the U.S.

2006-12-25 07:38:40 · answer #3 · answered by WC 7 · 0 2

Try the site below for research. Hope this helps.

2006-12-25 11:50:21 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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