2006-12-25 03:07:58 · 4 answers · asked by jmsbar90 1 in Social Science ➔ Psychology
I think it has to do with the Spanish colonization. But every country has discrimination against different groups. It is human nature.
2006-12-25 03:12:12 · answer #1 · answered by Mimi 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I don't think Philippine people are the only one discriminating their countrymen. I work with multicultural clientele from different country their reacted the same thing like Filipinos. By the way I don't discriminate my own countrymen, I talk to them whenever i see them on the street, the problem they cannot recognize me to be one of them. Still i say hi to them.
2006-12-25 20:45:12 · answer #2 · answered by linda c 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It has something to do with the very wide gap between the rich and the poor, and also with the relationship between the highly educated and the lowly educated or uneducated.
If you're poor or uneducated, you will surely be discriminated.
2006-12-28 14:22:24 · answer #3 · answered by roadwarrior 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
i dunno.. i ask myself that too. maybe its just one of the philippine characteristics u know... lol
2006-12-25 11:16:18 · answer #4 · answered by Lei 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋