2006-12-25 02:42:27 · 8 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
It is in some states
2006-12-25 03:07:04 · answer #1 · answered by Anarchy99 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No in divorces a verbal agreement is not legally binding as it is too hard to prove exactly what was said and agreed to, even with witnesses as too much can be added or deleted between people. Divorce documents must be in writing and notorized with signatures of all parties and any witnesses. It prevents problems on down the road especially if someone passes on.
2006-12-25 03:09:25 · answer #2 · answered by Arthur W 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It depends on the circumstances. Was the agreement witnessed? Was the agreement ever implemented? If I agree to pay 1000 for an item and begin making payments, and accept the item, then yes, there is obviously an agreement.
That the couple is divorcing is probably irrelevant, unless the agreement related to the marriage.
2006-12-25 03:08:32 · answer #3 · answered by kingstubborn 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Ar sometime it will need to be put in writing ti make it a legal, acceptable agreement. This is for the good of both parties.
2006-12-25 02:45:34 · answer #4 · answered by briang731/ bvincent 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
If you can prove the verbal agreement, for example with witnesses, then probably. The big deal with any verbal agreements, is proving they exist.
And by witnesses, I mean non-biased, believable witnesses...not relatives or good friends.
2006-12-25 02:46:01 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
no, nothings binding, till it is signed off on by the judge
2006-12-25 09:03:03 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, it's not. It has to be a written contract, signed and notarized with witnesses to swear nobody was coerced.
2006-12-25 02:45:17 · answer #7 · answered by Kacky 7 · 0⤊ 2⤋
i would think not.
2006-12-25 02:45:44 · answer #8 · answered by JBK 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋