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All factors being the same: kind and amount of liquid, ambient temperature(obviously it would have to be at or below the freezing temp. for that liquid), humidity; etc. The only difference being air movement. I believe so, because the liquid would lose heat faster due to the wind/air movement.

2006-12-25 02:08:58 · 3 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Physics

3 answers

Yes, it would. The reason that wind chill can be measured is because we can liken cold temperatures with wind to colder temperatures without wind on the basis of convective heat transfer and the evaporation of water. That is to say, when it is somewhat cold and very windy, heat leaves our body at the same rate as if it were just very, very cold, but with still air. So when we have a low wind chill due to wind, we have an environment where convective heat transfer, the loss or addition of heat due to the movement of a fluid, is increased. As a result, the water can freeze faster with a lower wind chill. In fact, wind chill is experienced directly by humans, animals, and wet objects; however, the wind chill formula is specific to human beings. Thus, a glass of water does experience a certain wind chill, but according to a formula that differs from wind chill tables used by meteorologists.

2006-12-25 02:11:05 · answer #1 · answered by DavidK93 7 · 1 0

The medium answer:
Two things are going on when you add "wind" into the situation.
1. the liquid (almost any liquid) on the surface would evaporate faster and the total mass would lose heat faster and there would be less left after the freezing is complete.
2. the liquid would be exposed to more of the air (like the reverse of a convection oven) Not really more air but the portion of air in direct contact with the liquid surface would carry away more heat faster.

2006-12-25 11:59:32 · answer #2 · answered by a simple man 6 · 0 0

The short answer is YES

2006-12-25 10:16:22 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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