2006-12-24 14:39:35 · 4 answers · asked by hans d 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
Not sure what you mean by bounded. Do you mean a solution that looks like a closed polygon? This isn't necessarily true, in fact it's usually not. you need at least 3 inequalities, that is, 3 lines, to define such a solution set, so you wouldn't have such a closed area unless you're restricting the solution to one side of the x and or y axis.
Or do you mean a solution that includes its boundaries? The latter would be true if your inequalities are inclusive, for example, y >= 2x as compared with non inclusive such as y > 2x.
2006-12-24 15:01:32 · answer #1 · answered by Joni DaNerd 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
First issues first, graph the two inequalities. this means graphing the traces seperately and shading the place the inequalities are authentic. the answer set would be the place you shaded for the two inequalities. You in no way understand which that's till finally you graph them the two.
2016-10-18 23:15:05 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no ofcvourse no
x>0
x >-1
has as solution x > 0 wich is clearly unbounded
2006-12-24 15:04:02 · answer #3 · answered by gjmb1960 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
not always,
if 2 lines are parallel and one is greater, the other less than, there will be no solution.
2006-12-24 14:49:41 · answer #4 · answered by professorminh 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋