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2006-12-24 04:56:23 · 7 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities Books & Authors

Good theories, this must go to a vote.

2006-12-26 12:36:11 · update #1

7 answers

I like this question- not your standard run-of-the-mill LOTR Q. I agree with the previous 2 posters- and I think it had a lot to do with the fact that anyone in the ring's power (those who 'kept' it and, especially, who wore it) was on their way to becoming permanently invisible to those who inhabited the 'normal' world- re the Nazgul (wore clothes so that they would have a form in the eyes of ordinary folks; remember, they were, as I understand it, the possessors of the 9 rings given to man). And, those using the ring were not invisible to anyone under the control of Sauron. So, that was S' way of really seeing them... they were in his realm. Likely, in Tolkien's masterplan, it is symbolic- the evil that is felt but not visible, except as a shadow, in the 'real world'... this made the connection between flat out 'evil' and the ordinary 'person'.

2006-12-24 05:38:20 · answer #1 · answered by boots&hank 5 · 3 0

While the above answers are interesting, and probably better than mine, I want to go off that track a bit.

Remember Bilbo's situtition when he first found the ring? Invisibility was a great way out for a writer to use and to use again and again in The Hobbit. There were no apparent bad effects then (Sauron had not yet reappeared) and I think Tolkien just tossed it in as a plot device.

2006-12-24 14:40:06 · answer #2 · answered by Walking Man 6 · 0 0

Well, I agree with the girl above, it's sort of a great power to be invisible, but remember that when Frodo wore the ring, besides becoming invisible, he was also kind of transported to a parallel world, of darkness, I dont know that part it's weird, both in the book and movie.
After all, it's Tolkien's story, he had the right to choose that, didnt he?
Merry Christmas and Happy New Year

2006-12-24 13:12:31 · answer #3 · answered by Abbey Road 6 · 1 0

Well, you have to keep in mind that the ring of power appeared first in Tolkien's "The Hobbit", when Bilbo Baggins was lost inside the goblins' cave, deep under the Misty Mountains. He came across Gollum's ring, and was drawn to it, and slipped it into his pocket. After Gollum is enraged with Bilbo's "riddle" (What is in my pocket?), Tolkien needed a way for Bilbo to escape Gollum sucessfully. So, Bilbo, nervously playing with the ring, slips it on, and disappears. Tolkien made invisibility the obvious power of the ring because he needed Bilbo to be able to escape Gollum, and the goblin cave (though he had to dart from tree to tree upon escaping, because he still cast a shadow.) The ring came in handy in releasing the dwarves from the Mirkwood elves, and with Smaug later on. The ring's power, I believe, was invisibility because it would be of most aide to Tolkien's little burglar, Bilbo, way back in "The Hobbit".

2006-12-24 17:52:40 · answer #4 · answered by Elizabeth D. 3 · 2 0

dont u think that when u r invisibble u r very powerful and u r holding a lot of options in ur hands.the ring is powerful thing but together with invisibility it`s practicaly universe power to defeat anyone

2006-12-24 13:07:05 · answer #5 · answered by sin_talk 3 · 0 0

He borrowed the idea from Plato. Seriously.

2006-12-24 13:46:00 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Because he wanted to

2006-12-24 13:03:44 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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