2006-12-24 02:43:00 · 5 answers · asked by dalicious 3 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Geography
India is officialy considered part of Asia, so the on the other side of the Himilayas from India is Asia, if you want to be specific, Tibet, which was conquered by China a while back.
2006-12-24 05:05:56 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Your first question is not clear.
India is a sub-continent, being surrounded by seas on 3 sides, except the North. It is a part of Asia, and has other neighbouring countries in the north such as Pakistan, Afghanistan, Russia, China, Tibet, Nepal, etc.
On the 'other side of the Himalayas' as you put it, India has China which is also a part of Asia.
Does this answer your question? (I got all this information from an Atlas.)
2006-12-24 02:51:29 · answer #2 · answered by greenhorn 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
India is called a subcontinent, but it is actually part of Asia. If you cross the Himalayas from India, you enter Tibet and China, which are also part of Asia.
2006-12-24 02:53:07 · answer #3 · answered by MathBioMajor 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I am afraid I do not completely understand your question. But, I am going to try to answer it anyway. :-)
The subcontinent of India is pressed up against Asia (also called Eurasia). It was the collision of the subcontinent of India against Asia that created the Himalayas.
So the answer to both of your questions is Eurasia.
2006-12-24 02:54:05 · answer #4 · answered by krinkn 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
India was at one time a free-floating continent. It smashed into asia, creating the himalayas, and tibetan plateau.
I hope that gets to the nature of your question...
Namaste,
--Tom
2006-12-24 04:21:09 · answer #5 · answered by glassnegman 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋