2006-12-23 23:39:52 · 22 answers · asked by Soundguy 2 in Sports ➔ Baseball
On the third called strike, yes.
It counts as a strikeout in the statistics, though.
2006-12-23 23:41:51 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Here is the most complete answer;
If the third strike is not caught by the catcher, (it can actually bounce to the catcher), and first base is not occupied with less than two outs, or is occupied, or unoccupied with two outs, the batter becomes a batter runner and must be put out by either a tag, or touching of first base with the ball.
A foul tip as pointed out above would be the third strike and the batter would be out. If it was a "foul tip" and the catcher didn't catch it, it can by rule NOT be a foul tip. It would only be a foul ball.
2006-12-24 03:23:23 · answer #2 · answered by br549 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
If, on a third strike and first base is not occupied with less than two outs, the catcher does not catch the third strike, the batter becomes a runner and can advance to first. If there are two outs, it does not matter whether first base is occupied; the batter becomes a runner when the catcher does not catch the third strike.
2006-12-24 04:31:31 · answer #3 · answered by Ryan R 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, if a batter strikes out and the catcher drops the ball he can run to first base.
2006-12-26 03:34:09 · answer #4 · answered by Gigi & Tino 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
If the catcher drops the ball on the third strike and first base is unoccupied then the batter can run to first, where he is usually tagged out.
2006-12-24 04:56:17 · answer #5 · answered by jesus_mysuperhero 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Two more things of note. First, the strikeout does not count as an out. Second, as BR549 pointed out, first base can be occupied if there are 2 outs, but if the bases are loaded the catcher only needs to step on home plate with ball in hand before the runner from 3rd base reaches home.
2006-12-24 05:59:03 · answer #6 · answered by reddy2hunt 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes it has to be on a dropped third strike. the official scoring for that is a strikeout against the batter, and the batter reaches first base on an error by the catcher. K, E2
2006-12-24 02:22:32 · answer #7 · answered by Chris L 3 · 1⤊ 1⤋
For a primo example of this ruling in effect go to the White Sox website http://whitesox.com and click "multi media" then "top plays archives" then go to October 12, 2005 ANA @ CWS and choose "Pierzynski's K". This was a very controversial play during the ALCS that year. As a catcher, Pierzynski knew he was able to take first and the Angels were caught off guard.
2006-12-24 18:32:22 · answer #8 · answered by cherokeekaraoke 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
all of the previous answers are correct but incomplete, a runner can land safely on first if the third strike is dropped AND first base is unoccupied, if there is a man on first the batter is out whether the third strike is caught or not
Ok I apologize, I missed the one correct answer above me. My bad
2006-12-24 00:00:11 · answer #9 · answered by Adam 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Yes if it would have been a third strike and the batter had not foul tipped the ball.
2006-12-26 17:50:55 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Yes, you can "steal" first base if you swing at a third strike and the catcher drops (or even misses ... like a wild pitch) the pitch.
2006-12-24 05:19:37 · answer #11 · answered by beaux b 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋