Are the spanish inferior to the british cos they were colonised or not?

Question

i dont know. if they are not inferior genetically then why did they get colonised for so long? im not saying they are but the facts say they are,

Answer 1

The south of Spain was colonised by the Arabs/Moors until El Cid and the rest of Spain took the terrortory back. It was also occupied by the British while fighting Napoleon.

Spain's King crushed its aristocracy in 1500, and its conquests with its navy and army soon made it the total superpower in Europe in 1500.
However, immense inflation occured in 1660.

Spain had gotton used to having shedloads of gold, and relying on other producers with its wealth. However its government soon taxed and spent more on military adventures. Borrowing by the Spanish crown had soon become the largest single financial operation in Europe. Mounting debts and a weakening economic base from overtaxation while inflation raged meant that society changed.

Land became concentrated in the hands of poltico-elite cronies called the Spanish Grandees/Nobles. As Spain split into a more plutocratic (just rich and poor - no middle class) nation, it became very weak internally and externally.

It's society became inferior to England. Viewing as noble unearned wealth from conquest, and endless spending with punative taxes, and not wealth from any real production growth was thier poison chalice, which soon saw the Spanish Superpower weakened by debt, and then become a backwards society.

England had thrown off the dark catholic supersition etc... and had become increasingly strong, as during this time its real welath had increased and its economy was producing a lot of goods, developing its economic and taxation base, from selling goods to an ever humbler France and Spain!.
By the end of the 1600's, just 40 years after the spanish inflation, England was simply walking in and taking whatever strategic points she wanted in the Med from Spain, like the Rock of Gilbraltar and part of the Canary islands.

Spain was a huge superpower, and had the reserve currency of the world, but ended up consuming and spending without producing, running up huge debts, and getting involved in unmanageble conflicts - the cost of being a superpower.

Inflation and taxation ate the heart out of the remaining Spanish productive industries and economy, and it became a 'land-wealth' based economy, with a corrupt poltico-elite grabbing the land and the population reduced to land slavery.

Nothing to do with genetics. In fact the original settler's of England were Spanish tribes from the iberian pennisular.

Answer 2

What the poo are you talking about?

The British colonized India and Pakistan and left in 1948. The Brits left the West Indies in the 1960's and 1970's.

Spain was never colonized by anyone. It was occupied by France from 1802-1810 or so.

All Spain's colonies except Cuba, PR, Guam and the Philippines were free by 1835. Cuba was independent by 1902. The Philippines by 1948.

I have no idea what your "facts" might be.

Answer 3

Colonization of one culture by another can arise due to (a) "accidents of history", (b) one culture valuing bravery and conquest over another, (c) one culture viewing another as superior or inferior etc.

There are good things and bad things in all cultures (including the Spanish and the British)... In some things, the British culture is superior and in other things the Spanish culture is superior.

Cordially,
John
http://www.GodSci.org

Answer 4

What!? OK, The Spanish had a ton of colonies, dude, like Mexico, South America, Central America, North America.....
Totally don't understand your question, man...

Answer 5

they were never colonized!they conquered almost all of south america and first discovered central america, they are not inferior at all, they just cared about collecting gold at first, they were some of the strongest!

Answer 6

the british were colonized by the romans and vikings, then they were kicked out of everything else they tried to colonize. so what was your question again?

Answer 7

They are. However they do have former colonies in south America.

Answer 8

Are you aware that Spain was never a colony?

Answer 9

yea the spanish were never colonized