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i dont know. if they are not inferior genetically then why did they get colonised for so long? im not saying they are but the facts say they are,

2006-12-23 13:29:07 · 4 answers · asked by hello 1 in Social Science Psychology

4 answers

To begin with both the British and the Spanish were conquerors, the British did have the biggest empire of the two, but both have a place in history.

You are hinting at "genetic superiority/inferiority" which has nothing to do with the history of these great countries. Chances are you are reflecting certain beliefs you hold with the question. All I have to say is don't look for inferiority anywhere or in anyone. Look for greatness; it exists in every country and race in this world and we all owe what we are to one another. Look for greatness around you and you shall find it within yourself as well.

2006-12-23 13:41:31 · answer #1 · answered by David R 2 · 0 0

I don't think the Spanish were colonised, unless you mean before recorded history.

The Spanish colonised most of South America and Mexico in their own right.

The Spanish and British fought many wars between themselves.

2006-12-23 21:36:18 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

the Spanish were labeled more type A
the English more more layed back type B
as to the relationship to the Americas the Spanish interbred with cannibalistic war tribes of south America and the English avoid all this through there religious overview and compared to the violence of the history of the american indian & Mayans and the Mex , aztics,to a class of warrior & laborer

2006-12-23 22:21:17 · answer #3 · answered by bev 5 · 0 0

What on earth are you talking about?
what facts?
What a poor question

2006-12-23 21:32:34 · answer #4 · answered by Yeah yeah yeah 5 · 0 0

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