The difference in peoples lives between the years 1806 and 2006 is massive but would there be any such noticable change in say a villagers life between 1106 and 1306 ?
2006-12-23 03:30:58 · 14 answers · asked by paul D 1 in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
There was actually a great deal of issues going on in the lives of people during this time because from 1095-1291 was the time of the Crusades http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Crusades Although technology did not change much during this time - the social/economic/political changes caused by the Crusades has drastic effects upon life during these times.
Good Luck!!!
2006-12-23 03:39:09 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
Very little. But had you said, say 1166 and 1366, the answer would have been different. Between 1347 and 1350 the plague, or Black Death, spread across Europe wiping out up to a third of the population. As a direct result of this, the old feudal system began to break down. There weren't the people to work the land. Bands of sometimes violent penitents roamed across Europe. It was a time of great social upheaval. The village your villager lived in may have totally disappeared. If that was not the case, many of the people he or she knew would be dead.
2006-12-23 05:15:05 · answer #2 · answered by rdenig_male 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
There was very little differance between the two periods a peasant from 1200 if transported from that period to the 14th centery would have noticed almost no differance , the few inventions that had accured were for those that could afford them IE harder steel , glasses , even the wheel barrow most would have been unable to afford, in fact the ordinary mans station in life would have been less than the earler period
2006-12-25 23:10:09 · answer #3 · answered by ? 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
In England, definitely. It was a social difference. Norman feudalism was established after 1066, and developed from there. French became the language of commerce in England during that time, and English was considered as a very backward language.
Little feudal wars were fought on English soil.
EDIT: I forgot the crusades. They contributed to impoversihing the verage Englishman, and even some of the Normans - those who were not as powerful.
2006-12-23 04:22:36 · answer #4 · answered by Mr Ed 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No change, it was bloody awful in 1106 and much the same in 1306.
2006-12-23 03:48:15 · answer #5 · answered by efes_haze 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
out break of the black death,feudalism got a real grip, taxation increased by huge slices to pay for the crusades, small regionalised kingdoms had to send men to the aid of the crown, vast tracts of the country was given over to the manors, the church increased its stranglehold upon the ignorant and the fearfull but apart from that it was business as usual at the GBuk co LTD. LF
2006-12-23 05:55:13 · answer #6 · answered by lefang 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Would you rather be a Saxon after about 40 years Norman oppression?
Or perhaps you'd rather look forward to a nice outbreak of Black Death?
I'm glad I'm in 2006
2006-12-23 04:14:50 · answer #7 · answered by rosie recipe 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The Magna Carta (1215)
Limited the rule of kings, provided for some freedom and justice for the commoner.
2006-12-23 16:33:39 · answer #8 · answered by salty 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
actually the relationship between electrons fron the singularity ingredient of the universe to the farthest reaches of our universe, are woven into tightly bonded unsleeping count, making up the "international you have your ft positioned on" basically positioned there's no distance, time, disconnected bond, meaning there's no difference, count of perspective out of your relative place to corresponding mentally spawn matrix which you're sense and see all around your total present being of creation
2016-11-23 13:08:52 · answer #9 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Probably no appreciable difference besides a new sovereign and some new wars; otherwise same old way of life (and death).
2006-12-23 03:36:31 · answer #10 · answered by limeyfan 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋