A story in the Washington Post today described how a federal judge ruled against Iran regarding a bombing of US soldiers in Saudi Arabia in 1996. Doesn't this violate the sovereignty of Saudi Arabia and possibly Iran? If not, why not? What is its constitutional basis? Has this question ever been addressed by the Supreme Court? What are the limits of US federal jurisdiction in cases like this?
2006-12-23 02:04:43 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
I'm looking for objective information rather than opinions on this topic.
Some of the responses given so far don't really address the question. What does diplomatic immunity have to do with it?
Also, the case in question apparently is a civil rather than criminal case -- since the court awarded monetary damages.
2006-12-23 04:15:07 · update #1
A few crimes committed by US citizens may be punished wherever they happen (crimes against a federal official or US personnel or a US military or diplomatic mission; theft of US property; child sex abuse; espionage; military crimes; and so on).
Some crimes may be punished no matter who committed them and wherever the crime occurred: certain of those listed above (crimes against official Americans and USG property); piracy on the high seas; air piracy; terrorism; certain war crimes; genocide.
The Alvarez Machain case may give you some insight: http://supreme.justia.com/us/504/655/index.html
2006-12-23 03:14:40 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 5⤊ 0⤋
Technically speaking, they aren't allowed.
It's called diplomatic imunity.
The only way out is if they suspect that the person is a Spy for the other government, or if the other government ALLOWS them to handle it (the chances of that are slim to none)
This is all in international law, but then again so is the fact that you cannot bring war to a country in order to CHANGE the REGIME, yet America still went about doing that in Iraq.
America is trying to be the dominating power (hegemony) and it will soon be a victim to the long-cycle theory (which in my opinion will be very short) and it will suffer a great downfall.
2006-12-23 10:09:37 · answer #2 · answered by thepenpal 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The basis is that the people bombed were Americans. America's own sovereignty includes its citizens - wherever they are.
2006-12-23 10:17:00 · answer #3 · answered by DAR 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because they're on U.S. soil. They then become our problem.
2006-12-23 10:20:16 · answer #4 · answered by Pache 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋