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I was told this by my english teacher, but I was not convinced. I understand how, when used as a helping verb, would not be able to end; however, when it is used otherwise, it seems it is just another intransitive verb and can be at the end.

2006-12-22 19:15:46 · 8 answers · asked by Keith P 1 in Education & Reference Words & Wordplay

8 answers

I was an English teacher, and I've never heard of that.

However, he may have been talking about the specific way in which you were using it.

2006-12-22 19:29:07 · answer #1 · answered by Iris 4 · 0 0

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2016-10-15 11:57:20 · answer #2 · answered by arleta 4 · 0 0

iwas teaching for a long time, of course not.
you can use to be in all kindsat the end of sentences
but just note that those sentences which ends with are, is ,was were ,am are usually short ansewrs,it means that they are complete and tangilble because the other words are repetitive ,
eg. are you a student? yes i am(a student) .
were you at home yesterday,?yes i was(at home yesterday) .

2006-12-22 22:26:13 · answer #3 · answered by nas 2 · 0 0

There are plenty of rules out there that make no sense and which have been debunked for a long time. They keep turning up, agian, and again, however.
*************
It depends what you mean by a sentence. If I was writing a novel I would be happy to use dialogue like this:

Are you married?
Yes, I am.

2006-12-23 04:13:05 · answer #4 · answered by Sciman 6 · 0 0

It is either a linking verb or intransitive.

"Are you?"
I am.

2006-12-22 21:54:05 · answer #5 · answered by . 3 · 0 0

You write that sentence the way you want it to be.

That's perfectly good English.

2006-12-22 20:34:34 · answer #6 · answered by Dr Know It All 5 · 0 0

Never heard of that one. A PREPOSITION cannot be the last word in a sentence.

2006-12-22 22:36:48 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

Didn't a famous English literary figure once say, " To be or not to be? ....That is the question.


Shakespeare's ..Hamlet.

2006-12-22 19:39:27 · answer #8 · answered by Lady N 1 · 1 0

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