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If your interested in buying a house in Texas, and someone had died in it, does the realtor have to tell you? Is it a law or anything?

2006-12-22 10:08:28 · 8 answers · asked by Anonymous in Business & Finance Renting & Real Estate

8 answers

if you tell the realtor you refuse to live in a house where a death occured...
you are to be told..no matter where..
if this is vital to you..have the realtor sign..that they will not sell you a "stigmatized" home..
good luck...

2006-12-22 11:38:58 · answer #1 · answered by m2 5 · 0 0

In most States it is the duty of the realtor to disclose any facts pertinant to the property. That duty only applies to what they knew or should have known. If the seller did not disclose a fact the Realtor may not have had any way to know.

Facts that may effect the value or the structure of the home are only relevant.

There are only a states that require disclosure of a death and it may be only if the death was by some means other than natural causes. Many homes have had a death in them at some point in time.

If it were Ted Bundy's house I think it would be a material fact. But if Grandpa had a heart attack it is probably not relevant.

If you ask and they know, they are oblilgated to inform you. But that duty lies with the seller not the agent.

2006-12-22 11:34:15 · answer #2 · answered by oldfatcowboy 3 · 0 0

It must be on the seller's disclosure IF the death was due to either:
1 - violence. Murder, drive by shooting, suicide,etc.
2 - problem with house. Someone slipped off the roof, a handrail gave way and they fell, the brick fireplace collapsed on someone, etc.

If the death was from natural causes - cancer, aids, old age, etc. then it does not have to be disclosed.

If you want a house that nobody has died in, build one. Most people go home from the hospital to die at home - most houses over 15 yrs have had someone die there.

BTW - If you ask me on a house I have listed "Has anybody died there?" and I know that someone did, but the seller did not want to disclose it, I will not disclose it any more than if you asked me if any Mexicans/Blacks/Gays had lived there before.

2006-12-22 18:02:32 · answer #3 · answered by teran_realtor 7 · 0 0

Check with the Texas board or realtors or whatever governing body they have.

2006-12-22 16:57:21 · answer #4 · answered by d b 3 · 0 0

No, in TX this does not have to be revealed voluntarily. If the realtor or seller has information on this and IF you ask they must answer truthfully.

2006-12-22 11:19:43 · answer #5 · answered by Bostonian In MO 7 · 0 0

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2016-10-05 22:11:29 · answer #6 · answered by lavinia 4 · 0 0

The laws vary by state, but I would think that they would only have to disclose it if (a) they knew about it, and (b) the person didn't die of natural causes.

2006-12-22 11:28:08 · answer #7 · answered by ramman 4 · 0 0

not if someone died in the house ,But if there was a murder yes .

2006-12-22 10:34:26 · answer #8 · answered by Mike N 2 · 0 0

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