http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/entrez/query.fcgi?db=pubmed&cmd=Retrieve&dopt=AbstractPlus&list_uids=10333115&query_hl=22&itool=pubmed_docsum
2006-12-22 09:45:14 · 4 answers · asked by Alex 2 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Biology
Thank you prof Kevin. I just saw the abstract of that paper. I believe that once diabetes 1 is in the family the father or mother could be any age and pass the mutated gene.
If there was no diabetes in the family at all then a new (de novo ) mutation would cause the diabetes 1. There is another study of diabetes 1 that found a paternal age effect.http://www.blackwell-synergy.com/doi/abs/10.1111/j.1464-5491.2005.01369.x?journalCode=dme
Does this study also show an association?
2006-12-22 13:32:55 · update #1
That's an interesting paper. However, the conclusions are that type 1 diabetes is associated ("statistically") with the father being older when the child was born.
However, there are a few caveats. The sample size was relatively large (n = 114 children of older fathers; and n = 495 for "normal"-aged fathers). Although a significance value (p) of 0.015 IS considered statistically significant, the fact the p value is NOT MUCH lower means type 1 diabetes does not always happen when the father is older.
2006-12-22 12:40:33 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
1
2016-05-18 08:58:20 · answer #2 · answered by Victoria 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
2
2016-09-17 15:22:09 · answer #3 · answered by Helen 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Answer --> http://DiabetesCure95.etnin.com
2016-03-22 06:05:58 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋