are the rules that god made , why did he brake the rules by taking another mans woman , and impregnate her sure that is the wrong thing to do , but if he can do it ,why are we not allowed ,
to me it sounds like one law for the powerful and one law for the weak
2006-12-22 08:25:01 · 21 answers · asked by alenn g 4 in Society & Culture ➔ Mythology & Folklore
The ten commandments are written by man, it may have been God's words but its how man has perceived them, if you read the true Hebrew text you will see there was no Virgin Mary, so I expect that most of the truth has been twisted by man so man can gain as much power over others as he can
2006-12-23 09:12:33 · answer #1 · answered by ringo711 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
God is already immortal....He doesn't have to follow any rules in order to be 'saved' from death.
Furthermore, if you can impregnate a woman by the power of your mind alone, without doing anything material, I'm fairly sure that this would not be a sin, go for it!!!
2006-12-22 08:48:27 · answer #2 · answered by raxivar 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I don't think Mary was any mans at the time of the immaculate conception.
God gave the rules because the people of Moses time asked for them. They wanted to live by law. God is perfectly happy to have us living under grace. Which is what the death of Jesus signified. The end of living under the law. No sin. No law. All are equal and under grace.
Which is the way it has always been. It is our human hearts and minds that cannot comprehend and crave the life of reward and punishment.
2006-12-22 08:50:58 · answer #3 · answered by ridethestar 5 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Well, if you accept the 4th centurly logic of people ignorant of genetics and the worth of science period, coupled with the stubborn backward view that understanding science can only detract from the bible (instead of enriching it) then you can only come to the conclusion that it's 'bias' 'wrong' 'broken' whatnot.
However, the most likely solution is that Joseph had sex with Mary, and the soul that incarnated within her (because of the bond of love for each other they shared) was created specially for the purpose of fulfilling biblical promise. She was 'virgin' in the sense of having never sinned according to doctrine, and the virtueousness of her character is what drew Jesus to choose her for his mother and Joseph for his father.
In that case, the 'virgin' conception and birth did not break the law, it fulfilled it.
2006-12-23 02:21:47 · answer #4 · answered by Khnopff71 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Exactly. If you are God then you can do what You want, Youmade the world and You made the rules, rules for your creation, Man.
If you are human you had best to do what God says and stop with the silly & sacreligious questions before God gets mad at you and makes you pay.
2006-12-22 08:56:14 · answer #5 · answered by CindyLu 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
If you read through the Gospels, you may notice that it's mostly men that get criticised by Jesus. (I can only think of one exception, offhand.) This makes me wonder whether men were actually good enough (up to the job, if you like) to be the father of God's son. (Men seem to create a lot of the world's problems.) Therefore, using the Holy Spirit made Jesus purer than other men. Sorry it this is a little provocative but I hope it answers your question.
2006-12-22 08:53:06 · answer #6 · answered by tattyhead65 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
As the immaculate conception didn't, by definition, involve any sex, God didn't actually break the commandment stating "Thou shalt not commit adultery". Nor is it stated anywhere that God had the hots for Mary, so he isn't guilty of coveting either.
If God had tranformed into corporeal form and actually banged Mary, then it would be a different matter all together, but the whole Christian faith is based on the idea that he DIDN'T do this, and Mary's pregnancy was immaculate, therefore a miracle, therefore divine. The abstract notion of Holy Spirit comes into play here.
While the Bible is full of condtradictions, this is not one of them.
2006-12-22 08:37:36 · answer #7 · answered by Entwined 5 · 4⤊ 2⤋
Wow, you people are seriously misinformed. God didn't "take another man's woman" when Mary became pregnant with Jesus. Mary was a virgin and she conceived by the Holy Spirit. Joseph was a good, godly man and he believed and accepted what the angels told him and Mary: that she would have a virgin birth and give birth to the Savior.
Christianity is not a myth. That is only said by non-believers. Sounds to me like the asker is looking for an excuse to commit adultery. Why don't you grow up?
2006-12-22 08:37:19 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 4⤊ 3⤋
C'est la vie.!!! but then it was a virgin birth. (no impregnation) and the "rules" were God's laws for man.
All creation is of God...so all women therefor are his too.
2006-12-22 08:49:25 · answer #9 · answered by ~☆ Petit ♥ Chou ☆~ 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
there was no actual physical contact in the mortal to mortal sense so therefore this is why Mary still had her virginity intact when She married Joseph
2006-12-22 10:30:30 · answer #10 · answered by Marvin R 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋