Because of the crime associated with them (excluding morality and health issues)?
As I see it, the black market was created by the government when it chose to ban instead of regulate recreational drugs. The crime associated with it would then be a derivative of that decision, and easily thwarted with goverment regulation (you don't see bootleggers running around anymore, do you?).
Many people also say that it's because people are on drugs they commit crimes, but alcohol has been present in just about every crime ever committed, but it is still legal (never mind caffiene or sugar). Why the gap in the drug/crime association?
2006-12-22 07:36:00 · 2 answers · asked by arch_uriel 2 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
It's just like racism. If people don't actually know what/who they're talking about they just jump to conclusions based on what they've seen on the news and in movies.
2006-12-22 13:31:26 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
some drugs that are legal currently should have further restrictions, some that are illegal shouldn't be, but by and large we got things OK.
2006-12-25 14:43:49 · answer #2 · answered by jloertscher 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋