this guy said this other person was going to hurt him.he took out a warrant.when trial came up the one that took out the warrant didnot show up the court wanted to charge him any way can a court do that without the guy being there?
2006-12-22 02:28:53 · 5 answers · asked by grayladygranny 3 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
If the personcharged has a record of violence, it's left up to the d.a. if they want to persue the charge. Terroristic threats are taken very serious today and if someone has exibited this type of behavior publicly or has been reported but not charged in the past, the courts take it upon themselves to resolve this persons issues. The charge for slapping someone is less than if you tell them your going to slap them. WELCOME TO AMERICA
2006-12-22 02:55:31 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
If criminal charges are pressed by the district attorney or other representative of the state (not the other person), then the court may indict the person in absentia and issue a warrant for their arrest.
If a TORT LAW SUIT is brought in CIVIL COURT by the hurt individiual for MONEY/restraining order, etc, they may run the trial in absentia also.
2006-12-22 02:33:39 · answer #2 · answered by Nalak 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes
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2006-12-22 02:37:10 · answer #3 · answered by tora911 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, definitely. Sometimes if the other person does not press charges the state (DA) can press them.
2006-12-22 02:50:55 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes.
2006-12-22 02:29:51 · answer #5 · answered by Drew P 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋