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Can an arithmetic progression have a constant difference of 0?
like 0,0,0,0,0,0
or 1,1,1,1,1

2006-12-21 15:30:02 · 7 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

ok thanks, just want to triple confirm

2006-12-21 15:36:54 · update #1

7 answers

yes it can
but it will be a trivial sequence

2006-12-21 15:32:43 · answer #1 · answered by raj 7 · 0 1

Absolutely; the only thing that matters in an arithmetic progression is that the difference of any two consecutive terms are equal.

For instance:
1, 2, 3, 4, 5

(5 - 4) = (4 - 3) = (3 - 2) = (2 - 1) = 1

0, 0, 0, 0, 0, ...
(0 - 0) = (0 - 0) = (0 - 0) = (0 - 0) = 0

One thing to note about sequences which repeat the same value over and over is that they qualify as both an arithmetic progression (d = 0) and a geometric progression (r = 1, for the sequence having non-zero values).

2006-12-21 23:33:53 · answer #2 · answered by Puggy 7 · 0 0

All the formulas for an arithmetic progression will work even if the difference is zero (What is the nth term of the progression? What is the sum of n terms of the progression? etc.)

2006-12-21 23:49:24 · answer #3 · answered by ? 6 · 0 0

Wouldn't call that progression in the English sense of the word, but you could call a point a degenerate circle with radius equal to zero. Sounds like the same sort of idea.

2006-12-21 23:33:39 · answer #4 · answered by adrian b 3 · 1 0

Yes - but these kinds of arithmetic progressions don't get invited to many parties, if you know what I mean.

2006-12-22 00:25:53 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Well, I'm not a mathematician, so my answer depends on the definition of "progression". To me, the word implies progress, or movement, so, just on that basis, of the examples you gave, progress does not appear to occur, except in the length of your "progression".

I'd vote "NO".

2006-12-22 00:25:52 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

yes if your progression's logic is multiplying the first by 1.

2006-12-21 23:34:00 · answer #7 · answered by Rajan S 1 · 0 0

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