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Does anyone know that the Consitution never says anything about the seperation of church and state? The seperation of church and state was reference Thomas used in a letter one time, not in the constitution, and he meant that one denomination should not be favored over another, like in the times of Great Brittain, when certain denominations of christians were favored over another. Can anyone show it to me?

2006-12-21 10:36:04 · 6 answers · asked by bobopotatoe 1 in Politics & Government Other - Politics & Government

6 answers

The concept of the First Amendment is not to "separate" church and state, but to ensure that no "official state religion" is established, as it was a response by the Continental Congress to England enforcing adherence to the Church of England during their rule.

Liberals would have you believe that the Amendment is stating that "no religious influence" may be considered when establishing any law for the people, which is, in effect, denying "freedom of religion" to the lawmakers, whom would use their religion, or lack of religion, as a basis for forming their ideals of "right and wrong".

2006-12-21 11:22:28 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

Absolutely true, and absolutely irrelevant. No magic attaches to a particular verbalization of an underlying concept.

The phrase "Bill of Rights" has become a convenient term to designate the freedoms guaranteed in the first ten amendments; yet it would be meaningless to argue that the phrase does not appear in the Constitution.

Similarly, the right to a fair trial is generally accepted to be a constitutional principle; yet the term "fair trial" is not found in the Constitution.

To bring the point even closer to home, who would deny that "religious liberty" is a constitutional principle? Yet that phrase too is not in the Constitution.

2006-12-21 18:49:46 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Amendment I - Freedom of Religion, Press, Expression. Ratified 12/15/1791.

Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof; or abridging the freedom of speech, or of the press; or the right of the people peaceably to assemble, and to petition the Government for a redress of grievances.

While you are technically correct, in a more literal sense you are wrong. The word "separation" isn't used, but the intent is clear.

2006-12-21 18:50:48 · answer #3 · answered by Jolly1 5 · 0 0

The letter you speak of was an assurance to the Baptist leaders that the government wouldn't get in their business! My how times have changed! Mostly changed by force by unelected liberal judges.

2006-12-21 18:44:33 · answer #4 · answered by Michael 6 · 0 0

I thought I was the only one who had read the Constitution. Thanks, good to know other realize it too!

2006-12-21 18:56:16 · answer #5 · answered by Yo it's Me 7 · 0 0

B I N G O !!!!!!!!!!!!!!

You are absolutely R I G H T ! ! ! ! ! ! !

2006-12-21 18:40:30 · answer #6 · answered by quagi m 3 · 0 1

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