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wanna help me with my stupid history class and answer this pleaase?? thanks

2006-12-21 02:58:10 · 4 answers · asked by dumbdumbhead 1 in Arts & Humanities History

um..so some of them were romans and the ones who settled there later werent?
i mean if they were under the 'roman empire' i think theyd b romans

2006-12-21 03:11:11 · update #1

man im guna fail this test..

2006-12-21 03:12:30 · update #2

4 answers

The only country in Europe that considers itself a direct descendant of the Roman Empire is Romania. Their language is about 80% Latin, and as one of the last conquests of the Roman Empire before its split and decline, the Roman traditions were still very strong while they had been corrupted elsewhere. Romania was largely too far north and protected by the Danube for the Ottoman Turks to destroy and rebuild them like much of the Balkan Peninsula, and too far south for the constant warfare back and forth between Western Europe and Russia. Not even the Italians consider themselves to be direct genetic descendants of the Romans because of the warfare back and forth. Yugoslavia is made up of various different branches of Slavic peoples, who descended from Asia into Eastern Europe as Rome was declining.

2006-12-21 03:34:57 · answer #1 · answered by sdvwallingford 6 · 1 1

No they weren't.

Though the area which is presently identified with the old Yugoslavia was a geographical part of the Roman Empire, The Yugoslavians were never romans. Back then the area was known as Illyria or Dalmatia.

Yugoslavian means South Slavs, as an ethnic group. The Slavs did not settle into the area until well after the Roman Empire fell. Though some did live in what was known as the Byzantine Empire, and that the Byzantines themselves referred to themselves as Romans, it is a spurious extension of logic to consider the Yuogslavians Roman just for this condition.

2006-12-21 03:08:50 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

Yep.

The area where Yugoslavia used to exist was certainly a part of the Roman Empire.

When the Empire split into east and west, the Drina river was the dividing line, so Yugoslavia shuttled between being a Byzantine ruled area and a Roman ruled area.

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Excellent - I bet you're getting really confused now !!

Peoples that accepted Roman rule under the Roman Empire (as did those who occupied the area known as Yugoslavia) were considered to be Roman citizens by the Romans and, although they may have still considered themselves to be of their local ethnic origins, they would also have accepted the fact that they were also "Romans". The Romans, in turn, categorised those who were not citizens in the same bracket as criminals and thought of them as "non-people", fit only to be butchered in the same way as animals.

This is how the Roman Empire managed to be so successful. They assimilated peoples into their culture rather than constantly battling them. If you look at the make up of the army in the later days of the Empire, many of them did not come from Rome, or even Italy - nevertheless they considered themselves to be Roman.

As an example Alaric, the king of the Visigoths, who invaded Rome in 410AD, had been brought up as a Roman and served in the Roman army. He obviously had his own ethnic sympathies, but still considered himself to be a Roman citizen.

Read my link if you haven't done so already, that will underline what I've said above.

2006-12-21 03:03:22 · answer #3 · answered by the_lipsiot 7 · 0 0

they were never "roman" they were a different ethnicity all together

2006-12-21 03:17:38 · answer #4 · answered by jefferson 5 · 0 1

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