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2006-12-21 02:01:12 · 3 answers · asked by dimensionless rigger 1 in Social Science Economics

3 answers

In the United States, Canada and Australia there is much more intensive and extensive agriculture and much more productive forestry than there was before European colonisation.

In Africa there was some improvement in agriculture during the imperial/colonial era, but government interference and/or incompetence has reversed it in many places, the worst being Zimbabwe. With the end of colonialism has come a population explosion resulting in expansion of agriculture at hte expense of wildlife.

In India the impact was very little, agriculture in 1947 was not obviously different from in 1647. It has since developed with modern technology a bit and distribution is much better than it was 50 yeas ago.

Similarly, the main expansion of forestry in Indonesia is since independence.

2006-12-24 04:55:18 · answer #1 · answered by MBK 7 · 0 0

The depletion of forests is more related to demand for land and its products, rather than colonialism or imperialism. A country need not be colonised in order for some landowner to make a quick buck by selling forestry concessions.

Look at how cash crops (tobacco, rubber, opium, coffee etc) affects food security. Also look at how the Irish Potato Famine was caused.

2006-12-21 12:11:10 · answer #2 · answered by Mardy 4 · 1 0

im not an expert on this, but from what i gather global colonialism has favored agriculture over forestry. due to the spread of 'developed' agricultural methods, much forest has been reduced, without being replaced.

2006-12-21 11:44:13 · answer #3 · answered by middle way 2 · 0 0

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