2006-12-19 11:28:43 · 18 answers · asked by Natalia 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
yes especially if there are witnesses
2006-12-19 11:30:53 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 1⤋
Verbal agreements can be upheld in court, but you still carry the burden of proving the terms of the agreement.
People enter into "verbal" agreements all the time, practically every day. When you go to buy gas, the price is listed on the pump. When you put the credit card in the machine, there is an agreement that you will pump the gas and pay the credit card bill when it arrives. There is no written contract for the purchase of the gas, but there is proof of the contract.
2006-12-19 12:46:28 · answer #2 · answered by Carl 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Depends on if there was consideration traded for the contract, detrimental reliance by one party, monetary damages, etc. If nothing has been done by either party to take action to initiate or complete the contract, then written or oral, it could be null and void. If there is an offer, consideration given, detrimental reliance, then witnesses and evidence of betterment of the other party, will be needed to uphold the oral contract. By the way, the correct word is "oral" contract, not verbal. As one famous law school professor clarified, would you rather have oral sex or verbal sex?
2006-12-19 17:13:30 · answer #3 · answered by alaskasourdoughman 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, oral contracts are good as long as one can prove firm offer, valid acceptance and proper consideration, as with written contracts. Witnesses may be necessary depending on the state. The exception is that certain contracts, like contracts for the sale of goods over $500 and contracts for marriage, can only be made in writing or else they violate the statute of frauds. It's best to look at your state's Uniform Commercial Code to find out what is required for any contract, and their specific statute of frauds.
2006-12-19 11:38:15 · answer #4 · answered by drniles81 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
only if the person who made the verbal agreement with you agrees that you did have a verbal agreement or if there were trustworthy witnesses to this verbal agreement
2006-12-19 11:31:46 · answer #5 · answered by kim 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It can. But The Court would belive you more If you had a written agreement. If I were you I'd always a written agreement
2006-12-19 11:32:07 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
yes it can. However, you will still to show the court proof of the agreement. It may be in how someone acted or what was sold, etc.
2006-12-19 11:45:44 · answer #7 · answered by a 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Of course it can - it's an agreement between 2 people. Right - credible witnesses that are not allied with either party to the agreement. This is not like in a police case where other police are "witnesses" - that of course is bogus since they are not disinterested
2006-12-19 11:31:39 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋
Yes if their are wittiness to it and also i was a juror on such a case we voted for the old lady who said she was being robed by her soninlaw who said he did not have to pay her since it was not a written contract but verbil or written they still will stand up in court
2006-12-19 11:43:19 · answer #9 · answered by speddy 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It might, depends. Got witnesses?
Sam Goldwyn, of MGM fame, noted for his "Goldwynisms," said "A verbal contract is not worth the paper its written on."
2006-12-19 11:32:23 · answer #10 · answered by sonyack 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, a verbal contract is still a contract. Unfortunately, it becomes hard to prove because it becomes a he said/he said type of situation. It will depend on whom the judge believes.
2006-12-19 11:32:18 · answer #11 · answered by Rebecca 5 · 2⤊ 1⤋