2006-12-19 10:17:06 · 6 answers · asked by b n 1 in Business & Finance ➔ Corporations
I always use this as an estimate as it's easy to remember...
Every $1,000 a year is $20 a week, which is 50c an hour.
So multiply yours by 32 and you get $640 a week or $16 an hour. It's not exact, but it's close enough to get a good idea, and you don't (or shouldn't!) need a calculator.
2006-12-19 10:46:46 · answer #1 · answered by Eyebee 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Assuming you are given 2 weeks vacation and get paid for them:
$32,000 / 50 weeks = $640.00 per week
$640.00 / 40 hours = $16.00 per hour
You are still making the same $32,000 but dividing that between 50 weeks instead of 52 weeks (because of the 2 weeks vacation).
2006-12-19 10:32:31 · answer #2 · answered by Todd O 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Figure a 2000 hour year, it's $16. Forty hours per week multiplied by 50 weeks with two weeks of vacay.
2006-12-19 10:28:17 · answer #3 · answered by AustinoBambino 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
About 15 bucks an hour
2006-12-19 10:22:06 · answer #4 · answered by Philip D 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Approximately $15.38 per hour, assuming a 40 hour work week.
2006-12-19 10:20:12 · answer #5 · answered by sharonj_1017 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
14.81/hr before taxes..Thats assuming 27 pay periods per year and 40 hours a week.
2006-12-19 10:19:52 · answer #6 · answered by tchem75 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋