Even if the person seconding a motion rescinds his second, it is my understanding that the motion must be brought to a vote (or a logical conclusion) after a second has been made. Is this correct?
2006-12-18 15:30:07 · 3 answers · asked by notrobert 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
That depends on the standards adopted by the meeting. Most run under the current version of Roberts Rules. See http://www.robertsrules.com/ for more information.
However, if your committee/group is using it's own set of rules, then this could go either way.
2006-12-18 15:40:12 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes. However, if you call for or second a motion you don't have to vote for it.
2006-12-18 23:36:55 · answer #2 · answered by The Big Box 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
YES, HE CAN RECIND HIS SECOND.I'M THE PRESIDENT OF A CONDO ASSOCIATION THAT HAS 4 HUNDRED PEOPLE IN IT.
2006-12-18 23:38:49 · answer #3 · answered by bettys 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋