2006-12-18 04:24:26 · 9 answers · asked by i got more beef than cattle 1 in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
No, but Germany paid reparations to the United Kingdom, France, and the Soviet Union mainly in the form of dismantled factories, forced labor, and coal. The US also confiscated German patents and German owned property in the United States. [citation needed] Germany was to be reduced to the standard of living she had had at the height of the depression (1932).
In accordance with the Paris Peace Treaties, 1947, payment of war reparations was assessed from the countries of Italy, Romania, Hungary, Bulgaria, and Finland.
2006-12-18 04:42:06 · answer #1 · answered by the_lipsiot 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
France never paid reperations after WWII, because they were part of the Allies(Who won). They did recieve massive amounts of help from the United States though.
2006-12-18 22:01:02 · answer #2 · answered by Lance D 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Here's some food for thought: France is possibly the ONLY European power not to have had a war against the USA, ever! (England did two times, Spain as well, also Italy, Germany, and strong antagonism against Russia...)
Also, France has helped USA become independent & exchanged many ideas during the revolutionary period (Bill of rights & French Rights of Man were created on same year! 1789)
So why is it that USA has so much antagonism against France?!
2006-12-18 13:38:45 · answer #3 · answered by Yan M 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
France owes us a lot for rebuilding her after WW2. The Germans owe France for occupation during same period.
2006-12-18 12:36:27 · answer #4 · answered by hillbilly 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. France was an allied country; hence one of the victors. Also France was invaded, not the invader.
2006-12-18 12:32:24 · answer #5 · answered by robert2020 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
...Are you retarded? France was a part of the Allied forces. Why on earth would the victor have to pay reparations?
2006-12-18 12:51:20 · answer #6 · answered by anonymous 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
who would France pay reparations to? She was one of the Allies. along with US, Russia, British Empire.......ie the winning side..after US and Britian spent billons andbillions and tens of thousands of lives liberating her.....
2006-12-18 12:33:59 · answer #7 · answered by yankee_sailor 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
WHY WOULD FRANCE HAVE TO MAKE AMENDS FOR WORLD WAR 2. THEY WERE INVADED BY THE GERMANS
2006-12-18 12:34:50 · answer #8 · answered by BOOMBOOMBILLY 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
AS FAR AS "LEND-LEASE" PAYMENT IN ARMS,AMMUNITION,PLANES,JEEP ARRIERS,JEEPS,TANKS,SHIPS AND WAR MATERIALE IS CONCERNED ONLY FINLAND PAID HER DEBT TO AMERICA OFFICIALLY!!
2006-12-18 20:34:55 · answer #9 · answered by eldoradoreefgold 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋