2nd amendment question!!!!!!?

Question

The word 'People' is used in both the First and Second Amendments. Yet, according to some anti-gunners, and some politicians and judges, the Second Amendment is meant to apply only to the 'militia', which they claim is the National Guard. My question is this: Why would the authors of the Bill of Rights use the word 'People' any differently in the First and Second Amendments. I maintain that the word People means everyone of us! Don't answer if you haven't reread the Bill of Rights.

Answer 1

About 20 yearas ago the U.S. Supreme Court heard that argument and determined that the word "people" as used specifically in the 2nd amendment means "individual citizens" NOT exclusively militias or military organizations. Otherwise we would have had total national firearms bans by now. The system works (barely).

Answer 2

This only shows how obsolete this amendment is. If we took the amendment at face value we would allow anyone any kind of weapon or weapon system they want as the right says it can't be infringed. It would be in the best interest of the country if this amendment was deleted and replaced with a more modern and sensible amendment that protects the right to own some types of weapons for hunting and reasonable self defense.

Answer 3

It's not the wording, it's the ideas that are important.

The key idea behind the enumeration of the rights in the Bill of Rights, is that all rights are individual rights. Period. At no time was there any other idea beyond these being individual rights.

Answer 4

"the Right of the People to Keep and Bear Arms Shall Not be Infringed." Sounds simple enough to me.

If you question the intent of these words, simply read other manuscripts/statements made by our progenies. Many people are shocked by how radical many of them were.