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every action has an equal and opposite reaction

2006-12-18 00:08:57 · 8 answers · asked by fidel_ram 1 in Science & Mathematics Physics

8 answers

To my knowledge, it hasn't.

Someone is claiming to have disproved it by showing that the tidal force hypothesis is wrong. I've read his demonstration and I was left very unconvinced by the claim. (It shows, instead, a poor understanding of mechanics)

PS: I just found a web site where someone else (a Ph.D.) states that the theory of Relativity expects Newton's third law to be violated. The author of the page states:
"The mainstream is quick to say that Newton’s Third Law does not extend into the relativistic regime."

I've read it. He explains how it is violated... and I still don't understand how. However, I understand that the objective of the article may be more to reduce the importance of Relativity rather than reduce the importance of Newton's work. So maybe, the third law has not been violated and the fact that Relativity says it is, is really used as a mark agains relativity.

Tha article will cause me to try and read some more on the topic.

2006-12-18 00:24:50 · answer #1 · answered by Raymond 7 · 0 0

it particularly is user-friendly. Rig up a gadget which reasons an action. shall we are saying the gadget is somebody sitting on an exceedingly stable skateboard who will throw a bowling ball alongside the axis of the wheels. degree how quickly the bowling ball travels, and degree how quickly the guy travels interior the choice direction. you need to as a substitute placed a wedge formed music on the skateboard which will handbook the ball from the front of the board to the lower back in case you heavily placed the ball immediately down on the best of the music. The music ought to line up with the wheels, and the wheels ought to turn extremely for this to be valid. heavily degree the cost of the bowling ball as quickly because it leaves the skateboard. degree the cost of the skateboard contraption additionally. multiply each and every mass by using the respective speed. Newton's regulation says that the mass circumstances speed of each and every would be equivalent. Now comes the exciting area. instruct that there is not any explanation for the discrepancy. as quickly as you have eradicated all supplies of errors out of your experiement, the version is how incorrect Newton substitute into.

2016-10-18 10:47:10 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

no, its because there is an opposite reaction when you apply a force... lets just take an example; a pen.... when hold a pen, you'll need to have friction( reaction or else), the pen will will not stay in your hand...

Newton's third law...cannot be disproved, because in daily life, it did happen... why are we able to walk?
its because when we step our feet forward,we're just like applying force, and since friction (opposite reaction) existed, our feet will not continue to move forward [as mentioned in newton's first law... "Every object continues in its state of rest or uniform motion in a straight line unless a resultant force acts on it to change its state...." ]

so, hope this example is clear enough to prove that newton's third law is still correct......

2006-12-18 00:37:17 · answer #3 · answered by katam 2 · 1 2

It hasn't been disproved, any more than any of classical mechanics has been disproved by relativity or quantum mechanics. Classical mechanics is still correct, it's just a little too simple to apply to all cases. See my answer in the reference.

2006-12-18 04:02:30 · answer #4 · answered by Frank N 7 · 0 1

It need not be the case when dealing with electromagnetism. The forces on moving electrons do not have to balance as the third law would have.

2006-12-18 00:55:14 · answer #5 · answered by mathematician 7 · 1 1

Who cares but no.

2006-12-18 01:16:38 · answer #6 · answered by Kmart 2 · 0 1

Not that I've heard.


Doug

2006-12-18 00:19:52 · answer #7 · answered by doug_donaghue 7 · 0 0

no

2006-12-18 00:21:34 · answer #8 · answered by JAMES 4 · 0 0

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