I'm trying to understand something. If the First Amendment to the Constitution says "...the Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion...," with the phrase "make no law" being the operative element, unless that means the Congress is responsible, also as a matter of law, not simple inference, for creating laws to prevent such a respect, why is it the Congress, or even the Supreme Court's, business if religious displays is put on public land? I understand public discomfort, though I'm not sure how compelling that is on legal grounds, but if the Congress didn't make legislation compelling the displays, what exactly is the Constitutional violation in religious displays on public land? Where is it wit regards to government buildings?
2006-12-17
14:47:20
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7 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Politics & Government
➔ Law & Ethics
displaus should say displays, sorry about that.
2006-12-17
14:47:56 ·
update #1
I should clear my head before I type. Oh well. It's understandable enough.
2006-12-17
14:50:25 ·
update #2
Kathy B, I understand the principle, and probably wouldn't object to a specific law, whether such laws already exist or not aside, to not allow religious symbols, I'm not even comfortable with Christmas being a federal holiday, but where is the violation? If no law is created, why does implied partiality make it a violation to have the displays? Your arguing law from implication, but unless the Constitution placed responsibility on the Congress to prevent implied endorsement, again, where is the violation?
2006-12-17
15:08:58 ·
update #3
Sorry, Kathy H. I probably confused your name with someone else's.
2006-12-17
15:09:33 ·
update #4